write my assignment 31188
Q1. A _____________ type of BN is a new type of LAN/BN architecture made possible by intelligent, high speed switches that assign computers to LAN segments via software, rather than by hardware.
a. Bridged backbone
b. Virtual LAN
c. Hubbed backbone
d. Collapsed backbone
e. Routed backbone
Q2. Routers operate at the application layer.
a. true
b. false
Q3. Routers can only connect the same type of cable.
a. true
b. false
Q4. Which of the following devices is the most complex?
a. Gateway
b. Router
c. Layer 3 switches
d. Switch
e. Multiprotocol router
Q5. The backbone architecture layer that is closest to the users is the:
a. Access layer
b. Distribution layer
c. Core layer
d. Privacy layer
e. Switched layer
Q6. A backbone network that connects many backbone networks spanning several buildings at a single location is often called an Internet backbone.
a. true
b. false
Q7. A subnetted or hierarchical backbone can also be called:
a. Bridged backbone
b. Virtual LAN
c. Hubbed backbone
d. Collapsed backbone
e. Routed backbone
Q8. One advantage of a router is that it can choose the “best” route between networks when there is a choice.
a. true
b. false
Q9. Ethernet/IP packet networks are not provided by common carriers such as AT&T.
a. true
b. false
Q10. MANs usually span 3 to 30 miles and connect BNs and LANs.
a. true
b. false
Q11. A ________ geometric layout connects all computers in a closed loop, with each computer linked to the next usually with a series of point-to-point dedicated circuits.
a. bus design
b. star design
c. full mesh design
d. ring design
e. partial mesh design
Q12. Cloud (as in cloud architecture) means that the design for the common carrier’s network comes from satellite networks above the clouds.
a. true
b. false
Q13. A WAN with a ring topology can use full or half duplex circuits.
a. true
b. false
Q14. In North America, a T1 circuit has ______ 64Kbps channels.
a. 2
b. 30
c. 24
d. 12
e. 36
Q15. Another way to refer to dialed services is by the term, plain vanilla telephone service (PVTS).
a. true
b. false
Q16. Which of the following is a primary advantage of a VPN?
a. low cost
b. inflexibility
c. unpredictable traffic congestion
d. security
e. complexity to the user
Q17. The original Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) is also known as mediumband ISDN.
a. true
b. false
Q18. Very-high-data-rate DSL uses multiplexing to provide _________ channels.
a. two
b. three
c. four
d. five
e. six
Q19. A(n) ___________ contains a series of cable modems/multiplexers and converts the data from cable modem protocols into protocols needed for Internet traffic, before passing them to a router connected to an ISP POP.
a. Internet steering system
b. optical-electrical converter
c. WAP proxy
d. cable modem termination system
e. fixed wireless system
Q20. A ____________ translates a wireless application request to HTTP and sends it over the Internet to the desired Web server.
a. passive optical scanner
b. local loop
c. cable modem
d. peer
e. WAP proxy
Q21. Network access points were originally designed to connect only local ISPs.
a. true
b. false
Q22. A DSL modem is also known as a:
a. DSL bridge
b. DSL brouter
c. DSL router
d. DSL gateway
e. DSL hub
Q23. Another term for cable networks that use both fiber-optic and coaxial cable is __________.
a. fixed wireless
b. mobile wireless
c. distribution hub
d. hybrid fiber coax
e. fibrax
Q24. Data traffic from the customers premises is sent to a __________ which is located at the local carrier’s end office.
a. modem
b. codec
c. DSLAM
d. NIC
e. ATM
Q25. Fiber-to-the-home is another term for satellite fixed wireless technology.
a. true
b. false
Q26. A(n) _________ is a type of application level firewall that is transparent so that no other computer notices that it is on the network.
a. ANI system
b. NAT proxy server
c. IP spoofing bridge
d. packet level firewall
e. smart hub
Q27. With the passage of HIPAA and the Sarbanes-Oxley Act, more and more regulations are addressing security.
a. true
b. false
Q28. A __________ is a router or special purpose computer that examines packets flowing into and out of a network and restricts access to the organization’s network.
a. firewall
b. token system
c. ANI
d. call-back modem
e. firefighter
Q29. Intrusion refers to confidentiality and integrity of data.
a. true
b. false
Q30. Threat of intrusion comes from ____________.
a. the government
b. crackers
c. outside of the organization
d. both inside and outside of the organization
e. inside of the organization
Q31. Which of the following is usually the first choice for eavesdropping?
a. unshielded twisted pair
b. shielded twisted pair
c. local cables owned by the organization
d. infrared
e. fiber optics
Q32. A(n) ___________ is one of the most common examples of redundancy built into a network to help reduce the impact of disruption.
a. network cloaking device
b. backup punch card reader
c. uninterruptible power supply
d. service level agreement
e. help desk
Q33. The most common authentication protocol used today is Kerberos.
a. true
b. false
Q34. A(n) _________ is something of value and can be either hardware or software.
a. asset
b. service level agreement
c. threat
d. security plan
e. network design
Q35. Once the needs have been defined in the logical network design, the next step is to develop a(n) __________.
a. application
b. baseline
c. technology design
d. turnpike design
e. backplane design
Q36. The traditional network design approach works very well for rapidly changing networks.
a. true
b. false
Q37. ________ is used to model the behavior of the planned communication network once the proposed network map is complete.
a. Implementation
b. Post-implementation review
c. Documentation
d. Simulation
e. Training users
Q38. Networks requirements can be divided into mandatory, desirable, and wish-list requirements.
a. true
b. false
Q39. The core layer of the network is usually the busiest.
a. true
b. false
Q40. Gaining an understanding of the current application system and messages provides a _________ against which future design requirements can be gauged.
a. backplane
b. baseline
c. turnpike document
d. wish list
e. RFP
Q41. To establish circuit loading, the designer usually starts with the:
a. total characters transmitted per day on each circuit, or, if possible, the number of characters transmitted per two-second intervals if peaks must be met
b. individual user training
c. bus diameter, disk cache that is used at the server station
d. channel bandwidth and baud rate used at each client
e. local, trunk, IXC, DDD, and leased-line circuit bandwidth for each node
Q42. RFP stands for:
a. Request for Proposal
b. Ring Fault Path
c. Routing File Protocol
d. Record Facsimile Program
e. Redundant File Protocol
Q43. Management reports can be helpful in determining network availability statistics.
a. true
b. false
Q44. User profiles should enable the network manager to identify the access rights (to particular files and directories) for each user.
a. true
b. false
Q45. ____________ are reports produced by numerous network software packages for recording fault information.
a. Wish list documentation
b. Trouble tickets
c. Smart hub lists
d. Bursty router printouts
e. Roger systems checks
Q46. _______ are network devices that record data on the messages they process as well as performing their “normal” message processing functions.
a. Faulty
b. Bursty
c. Trouble tickets
d. Voice-activated
e. Managed devices
Q47. ___________ refers to managing and documenting the network’s hardware and software configuration.
a. Visioning
b. Troubleshooting
c. Firefighting
d. Configuration management
e. Implementation
Q48. _____________ is the percentage of time the network is usable by users.
a. Retransmission rate
b. Availability
c. MTTDiagnose
d. Downtime
e. MTBF
Q49. Load balancing is a special software package that permits the network manager to set priority policies for network traffic that take effect when the network becomes busy.
a. true
b. false
Q50. Electronic Software Distribution requires managers to install software on client computers manually.
a. true
b. false
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