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write my assignment 11224

Please write a research paper for the following questions. The paper needs to APA format, this topic will rely upon the information in the textbook, the material you have been additionally taught in class by the professor, and additional research from at least 12 credible sources(not Wikipedia). The performance expectation is that you will clearly and credibly explain, content needs to be meaningful Master’s level academic writing. Write up to 2500 Words 

·     Introduction: In about 600 words, explain What is organization culture? Any self-experience from past, any good example of organization culture. How culture impacts an organization’s structure, systems, and workplace climate.

·     In about 900 words, explain how organization culture differs in different organization. Give a strong comparison and understanding as per the theories of organizational culture.

·     In about 900 words, explain and show how different organizational cultures can affect the structure of the organization and define what types of structures there are. Give an example to support your arguments.

 

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July 5, 2022by

write my assignment 6726

Izard conducted a study similar to Ekman and Friesen, exploring the recognition of emotional expression only he investigated one extra emotion beyond the “basic 6”, what was this extra emotion? What is the “John Wayne” criticism that was made of Ekman and Friesen”s finding of consensus in emotional recognition from their first study across literature societies? What did Ekman and Friesen do in response to the criticism? What was the criticism that was made of Ekman”s use of posed facial expressions? How did Ekman, Lazarus, and Tomita address the criticism of posed facial expression? What did Ekman et al., find out from their spontaneous facial expression study? Goleman, D. (1981) The 7000 Faces of Dr. What is the FACS, how is it used, what specifically does it measure? What inspired Ekman to purse the study of facial expression of emotions?

 

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July 5, 2022by

write my assignment 10064

1.   (Government and Monopoly* – from previous midterm) Claudia is a monopolist in a market that has demand given by P = 360−0.25Q. She faces total costs given by C(Q) = 1000+10Q +0.5Q2.

(a)    Claudia is a profit-maximizer, but the government prevents her from doing any kind of price discrimination, so she has to just set a uniform (linear) price. What is her profit-maximizing price and equilibrium quantity?

(b)    What would be the socially efficient quantity to have transacted in this marketplace?

(c)    Suppose the government steps in and tells Claudia what price she can charge per-unit. Given that nobody can force Claudia to produce output if she doesn’t want to, what would happen if the government mandated that the price be set to maximize the total surplus, but does not offer Claudia a subsidy?

(d)    For political reasons, the government cannot subsidize companies, although they can regulate prices. What is the price they should set to maximize total surplus, given the monopolist’s incentives?

 

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July 5, 2022by

write my assignment 30911

Can someone please assist me with the below questions

Q1. The unauthorized use of a credit card can result in criminal charges.

   a. true

   b. false

Q2. Under the Constitution, any _____________ must be disclosed to the defendant.

   a. false evidence

   b. important evidence

   c. exculpatory evidence

   d. illegally collected evidence

Q3. If a person is charged with a crime, rather than going through trial, there is often an agreement reached by the defendant and prosecutor that is called:

   a. an arraignment

   b. nolo contendere

   c. demurrer

   d. plea bargain

Q4. If a person engages in illegal activities, such as drug dealing, and one hides the origins of the income, besides tax problems, there may be a crime of:

   a. embezzlement

   b. insider trading

   c. fraud

   d. money laundering

Q5. When one commits a criminal act, that wrongful deed is:

   a. mens rea

   b. intentional negligence

   c. res ipsa loquitor

   d. actus reus

Q6. The punishments for crimes are determined at the discretion of a court at trial.

   a. true

   b. false

Q7. If someone is very drunk and then, only because of their drunkenness, causes a fatal accident:

   a. there can be no crime because there was no willful consent

   b. there can be no crime because there was no mens rea

   c. there can be no crime because there was no culpable disregard for the rights of others

   d. there can be a crime because there was criminal negligence

Q8. Identifying the beneficial owner of all assets, tracing the transmission of assets and reporting suspicious transactions are all goals of:

   a. anti-embezzlement measures

   b. anti-fraud measures

   c. anti-money laundering measures

   d. anti-theft measures

   e. anti-wire fraud measures

Q9. If a jury finds there is comparative negligence in a tort case, which of the following happens:

   a. damages are not allowed to be awarded

   b. part of the injury is held to be the plaintiff’s fault

   c. the defendant is relieved of any fault

   d. the judge issues a judgment notwithstanding the verdict

Q10. Proximate cause limits liability to harms:

   a. whether foreseeable or not

   b. resulting from remote occurrences “evolving naturally” from a central event

   c. that result from non-negligent conduct

   d. that bear a reasonable relationship to the defendant’s negligent conduct

Q11. Express assumption of risk is when:

   a. the parties agree beforehand that the defendant will relieve the plaintiff of his or her legal duty towards the defendant

   b. the parties agree beforehand that the plaintiff will do everything in his power to protect the defendant from known risks

   c. the parties agree beforehand that the defendant is only responsible for unknown risks

   d. the parties agree beforehand that the plaintiff will relieve the defendant of his or her legal duty toward the plaintiff

Q12. Negligence torts differ from intentional torts in that:

   a. the government is the prosecutor in negligence torts

   b. the victim does not receive compensation in a negligence tort case

   c. in negligence the harmful results of a person’s conduct are not intentional

   d. intentional torts are also felonies

Q13. If the causal relationship between the defendant’s act and the resulting harm is broken by an intervening act, there is an approximate cause.

   a. True

   b. False

Q14. Which of the following is unlikely to be classified an intentional tort:

   a. running at a stranger while waving an iron pipe at them

   b. getting smashed in the face by a baseball at a baseball game

   c. a man grabs a woman he does not know and kisses her despite her protests

   d. secretly making tapes of your roommate’s phone calls

Q15. To be liable for an intentional tort, the defendant must have:

   a. acted voluntarily

   b. acted unknowingly

   c. acted quickly

   d. acted in an informed manner

Q16. In an intentional tort action, motive is ______________ the act.

   a. legally indistinct from

   b. legally distinct from

   c. indistinguishable from

   d. a key component of

Q17. In a suit for fraud, the plaintiff must establish a good reason to rely on the bad information provided by the defendant.

   a. true

   b. false

Q18. Federal regulations controlling radiation exposure are an example of:

   a. a potential statutory limit on tort liability

   b. a statutory limit on how many cases may be brought against a manufacturer for a defective product that causes injuries

   c. a potential cause for tort liability for a manufacturer

   d. the main cause of most business tort cases

Q19. Liability based on ______________ may be imposed on a manufacturer if a causal connection can be established between the failure of the manufacturer to exercise reasonable care and an injury suffered by a consumer.

   a. stare decisis

   b. intentional tort

   c. negligence

   d. neglect

   e. failure to inform

Q20. Fraud, misrepresentation, fraudulent misrepresentation and deceit are all examples of torts caused by:

   a. deliberate deception

   b. accidental deception

   c. intentional battery

   d. premeditated harm

   e. tax evasion

Q21. Most tort suits are filed in:

   a. state courts

   b. federal courts

   c. appellate courts

   d. small claims courts

   e. municipal courts

Q22. A(n) _____________ warranty is one the law may insert regardless of actual contract terms.

   a. implied

   b. valid

   c. explicit

   d. rapid

Q23. The bulk-supplier doctrine holds that the bulk supplier:

   a. has a duty to take reasonable steps to insure that its buyer is knowledgeable and equipped to provide warnings to the ultimate users, but it does not have to police the details of what is done as the product continues down the chain of use

   b. has no duty to take reasonable steps to insure that its buyer is knowledgeable and equipped to provide warnings to the ultimate users, and it does not have to police the details of what is done as the product continues down the chain of use

   c. has a duty to take reasonable steps to insure that its buyer is knowledgeable and equipped to provide warnings to the ultimate users and must police the details of what is done as the product continues down the chain of use

   d. is liable for injuries caused by any item sold

Q24. When a person suffers an injury due to deliberate deception, there may be a tort of defamation.

   a. true

   b. false

Q25. The manufacturer of goods is liable in tort to users for foreseeable harms caused by defects in the goods. This is:

   a. negligence in tort

   b. caveat emptor

   c. proximate cause

   d. strict liability

 

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July 5, 2022by