From Boilercast lecture 2-1: Back in 1974 real GDP decreased by 0.5% and the inflation rate increased to 11%

QUESTION 1

  1. From Boilercast lecture 2-1: Back in 1974 real GDP decreased by 0.5% and the inflation rate increased to 11%. Which aggregate demand or aggregate supply shift could explain this change?

Increase in aggregate demand.

Decrease in aggregate demand.

Increase in aggregate supply.

Decrease in aggregate supply.

3 points  

QUESTION 2

  1. Boilercast Lecture 2-2: Here is a table showing the macro measurements for the U.S. economy from 2007 to 2009.
  2. Which of the following best describes what happened in the Goods Market of the U.S. economy in 2009?

a.Aggregate demand increased, output and the price level increased, and output was above potential.

b.Aggregate demand decreased, output and the price level decreased, and output was above potential.

c.Aggregate demand decreased, output and the price level decreased, and output was below potential.

d.Aggregate supply increased, output and the price level decreased, and output was above potential.

e.Aggregate supply decreased, output and the price level decreased, and output was below potential.

3 points  

QUESTION 3

  1. Boilercast Lecture 2-3: What policy could the Federal Reserve have used to speed the recovery from the recession of 1907-08?

a.Increase the discount rate to increase the money supply.

b.Decrease the discount rate to increase the money supply.

c.Increase the discount rate to decrease the money supply.

d.Decrease the discount rate to decrease the money supply.

3 points  

QUESTION 4

  1. Consider the goods market in our macroeconomic model. Which two changes could both cause a decrease in unemployment and an increase in real GDP?

a.A fall in oil prices and a decrease in government purchases.

b.An increase in investment spending and perfect weather for agriculture.

c.An increase in import spending and a decrease in export spending.

d.A rise in oil prices and an increase in consumer spending.

1 points  

QUESTION 5

  1. Consider second shift #1, where changes in aggregate demand can cause shifts in aggregate supply in the goods market. Suppose the unemployment rate was higher than 5%, meaning it was more than the unemployment rate at potential output.  Think carefully about whether equilibrium output is higher or lower than potential output! According to second shift #1, what could happen as a result?

a.Aggregate demand will increase.

b.Aggregate demand will decrease.

c.Aggregate supply will increase.

d.Aggregate supply will decrease.

1 points  

QUESTION 6

  1. Consider second shift #2, where changes in the money market affect the goods market. Which changes in the money market could cause a decrease in real GDP in the goods market?

a.An increase in the bank reserve ratio leading to an increase in the money supply.

b.An increase in the bank reserve ratio leading to a decrease in the money supply.

c.A decrease in the bank reserve ratio leading to a decrease in the money supply .

d.A decrease in the bank reserve ratio leading to an increase in the money supply.

1 points  

QUESTION 7

  1. Consider second shift #3, where changes in the goods market affect the money market. Suppose real GDP and inflation increased. What changes would occur in the money market?

a.An increase in money supply.

b.A decrease in money supply.

c.An increase in money demand.

d.A decrease in money demand. 

1 points  

QUESTION 8

  1. Consult the worksheet for this question. Here’s a link: Online Project Quiz Worksheet, Module 2
  2. Federal government purchases increased during World War I. What does our macro model predict would happen in the U.S. economy?

a.Output decreases below potential, prices decrease, interest rate decreases.

b.Output decreases below potential, prices increase, interest rate unchanged.

c.Output increases above potential, prices decrease, interest rate increases.

d.Output increases above potential, prices increase, interest rate increases.

2 points  

QUESTION 9

  1. Consult the worksheet data table for this question. What happened in the goods market in 1920?  

a.Input costs increased, aggregate supply decreased, and output fell to potential.

b.Input costs decreased, aggregate supply increased, and output rose further above potential.

c.The interest rate spread increased, aggregate demand decreased, and output fell to potential.

d.The interest rate spread decreased, aggregate demand increased, and output rose further above potential.

2 points  

QUESTION 10

  1. What policy could the Federal Reserve have used to bring down inflation after World War I?

a.Increase the discount rate to increase the money supply.

b.Decrease the discount rate to increase the money supply.

c.Increase the discount rate to decrease the money supply.

d.Decrease the discount rate to decrease the money supply.

2 points  

QUESTION 11

  1. Consult the data table in the worksheet. What happened in the money market in 1921?

a.Money demand increased, money supply was unchanged.

b.Money demand was unchanged, money supply decreased.

c.Money demand decreased, money supply decreased more.

d.Money demand was unchanged, money supply increased.

2 points  

QUESTION 12

  1. Consider the worksheet table showing the four economic indicators for the 1960’s. Choose the paragraph that best describes the data for your whole decade.

a.The decade saw an unstable economy. In several years output grew rapidly, but there was a recession at the decade’s beginning and a severe recession in the middle. Unemployment dropped early in the decade, then soared to high rates during the recession. Lenders became very pessimistic during the mid-decade recession, so riskier corporations had trouble borrowing. And, to top it all off, the decade saw the highest inflation of the past fifty years. There were some years when inflation and unemployment were both above average, the worst of all possible worlds.

b.The decade saw one of the longest expansions in U.S. history. After a mild recession at the start, output grew steadily, at above average rates towards the end of the decade. Unemployment peaked early, then declined to low levels by the end of the decade. In the money market lenders were confident through most of the decade, after a bit of trouble early. Inflation was troublesome early in the decade. Remarkably, though, despite steady growth and falling unemployment, inflation declined and remained below average during most of the decade.

c.The decade saw one of the longest expansions in U.S. history. After a mild recession at the beginning of the decade, output grew steadily, often rapidly. Unemployment rates declined to very low levels by the end of the decade. The money market was settled, as lenders remained confident throughout the decade. All was not as well as it seemed, though. Inflation was under control at the beginning of the decade. After a steady rise, by the end of the decade it had become a problem.

d.The decade began with the worst recession since the Great Depression. Output fell substantially and unemployment rose to the highest levels in decades. Inflation was high as well, the worst of all possible worlds. Money markets became severely pessimistic with the downturn, and lenders remained gloomy throughout most of the decade.  The recovery saw rapid growth at first, but the unemployment rate fell to acceptable levels only by decade’s end. The recession helped bring down inflation, though, to very low levels by mid-decade. Inflation crept up again by the decade’s end, however. 

2 points  

QUESTION 13

  1. Now use the 1960’s data table and apply our macroeconomic model to analyze the data for 1964 to 1968.  
  2. •         Assume that Q on the horizontal axis of the goods market represents real GDP.
  3. •         Assume that changes in P on the vertical axis of the goods market represent changes in the inflation rate (so a fall in P represents a decrease of the inflation rate).  
  4. •         Assume that unemployment is represented by the difference between equilibrium output and potential output, and that the unemployment rate at potential is 5%.
  5. •         Assume that changes in r on the vertical axis of the money market represent changes in the interest rate spread (so a rise in r means a bigger spread). Changes of less than 0.1% are not important.
  6. •         When in doubt, compare the first year to the last year, and ignore the years between. That identifies the trend of the whole period.
  7. Which shift best describes this time period in the goods market during 1964 to 1968?

a.Aggregate supply was increasing.

b.Aggregate supply was decreasing.

c.Aggregate demand was increasing.

d.Aggregate demand was decreasing.

2 points  

QUESTION 14

  1. Which shift best describes this time period in the money market during 1964 to 1968? Use the 1960’s data table.

a.Money demand was increasing.

b.Money demand was decreasing.

c.Money demand was increasing but money supply was increasing more.

d.Money demand was decreasing but money supply was decreasing more.

2 points  

QUESTION 15

  1. What counter-cyclical monetary policy should the Federal Reserve have followed during this period, in order to stabilize the economy at potential output during 1964 to 1968?

a.There was no clear counter-cyclical monetary policy, because output rose above potential but the inflation rate was falling.

b.Increase the money supply to decrease the real interest rate, and so increase aggregate demand.

c.There was no clear counter-cyclical monetary policy, because output fell below potential but the inflation rate was rising.

d.Decrease the money supply to increase the real interest rate, and so decrease aggregate demand.

2 points  

QUESTION 16

  1. Choose a “story” that best matches the data and the analysis from the model for the years 1964 to 1968. (The names of wars and policymakers have been removed so as not to give away the answer to those who know U.S. history.)

a.The effects of a severe recession early in the decade were still being felt at the beginning of this period. Output was less than potential, and financial markets remained pessimistic. As financial markets gained confidence, however, borrowing costs fell for more-risky businesses, which increased investment spending. Tax cuts for households added to consumer spending, and the government increased spending on military purchases.

b.At the beginning of this period the economy was expanding and output approached potential. Then a war helped cause large increases in oil prices, which increased business costs. Businesses cut back on production and passed higher costs to consumers in higher prices, as much as they could. High inflation increased money demand, and financial markets became pessimistic, which further contributed to the economy’s problems.

c.The effects of recession early in the decade had faded by the beginning of this period. Rapid technological advance helped cause steady growth in output. These new technologies along with falling oil prices caused inflation to decrease, even though output rose above potential. Financial markets were optimistic throughout this period. They increased lending enough to hold interest rates stable despite rising incomes.

d.At the beginning of this period the U.S. President decided to expand Federal social spending and fight a war against U.S. enemies at the same time. A large tax reduction that had been proposed by a previous President took effect. After that, consumer and government spending increased rapidly. Financial markets were generally optimistic, but increasing demand for money raised borrowing costs, especially for more-risky businesses.

4 points  

QUESTION 17

  1. Consider the worksheet table showing the four economic indicators for the 1990’s. Choose the paragraph that best describes the data for your whole decade.

a.The decade saw an unstable economy. In several years output grew rapidly, but there was a recession at the decade’s beginning and a severe recession in the middle. Unemployment dropped early in the decade, then soared to high rates during the recession. Lenders became very pessimistic during the mid-decade recession, so riskier corporations had trouble borrowing. And, to top it all off, the decade saw the highest inflation of the past fifty years. There were some years when inflation and unemployment were both above average, the worst of all possible worlds.

b.The decade saw one of the longest expansions in U.S. history. After a mild recession at the start, output grew steadily, at above average rates towards the end of the decade. Unemployment peaked early, then declined to low levels by the end of the decade. In the money market lenders were confident through most of the decade, after a bit of trouble early. Inflation was troublesome early in the decade. Remarkably, though, despite steady growth and falling unemployment, inflation declined and remained below average during most of the decade.

c.The decade saw one of the longest expansions in U.S. history. After a mild recession at the beginning of the decade, output grew steadily, often rapidly. Unemployment rates declined to very low levels by the end of the decade. The money market was settled, as lenders remained confident throughout the decade. All was not as well as it seemed, though. Inflation was under control at the beginning of the decade. After a steady rise, by the end of the decade it had become a problem.

d.The decade began with the worst recession since the Great Depression. Output fell substantially and unemployment rose to the highest levels in decades. Inflation was high as well, the worst of all possible worlds. Money markets became severely pessimistic with the downturn, and lenders remained gloomy throughout most of the decade.  The recovery saw rapid growth at first, but the unemployment rate fell to acceptable levels only by decade’s end. The recession helped bring down inflation, though, to very low levels by mid-decade. Inflation crept up again by the decade’s end, however. 

2 points  

QUESTION 18

  1. Now let’s apply our macroeconomic model to analyze the data in the above table for 1994 to 1998. 
  2. •         Assume that Q on the horizontal axis of the goods market represents real GDP.
  3. •         Assume that changes in P on the vertical axis of the goods market represent changes in the inflation rate (so a fall in P represents a decrease of the inflation rate).  
  4. •         Assume that unemployment is represented by the difference between equilibrium output and potential output, and that the unemployment rate at potential is 5%.
  5. •         Assume that changes in r on the vertical axis of the money market represent change in the interest rate spread (so a rise in r means a bigger spread). Changes of less than 0.1% are not important.
  6. •         When in doubt, compare the first year to the last year, and ignore the years between. That identifies the trend of the whole period.
  7. Which of the above goods market graphs best describes the 1994-1998 period?

a.A

b.B

c.C

d.D

2 points  

QUESTION 19

  1. Which of the above money market graphs best describes the 1994-1998 period?

a.E

b.F

c.G

d.H

2 points  

QUESTION 20

  1. What counter-cyclical monetary policy should the Federal Reserve have followed during this period, in order to stabilize the economy at potential output during 1994 to 1998?

a.There was no clear counter-cyclical monetary policy, because output rose above potential but the inflation rate was falling.

b.Increase the money supply to decrease the real interest rate, and so increase aggregate demand.

c.There was no clear counter-cyclical monetary policy, because output fell below potential but the inflation rate was rising.

d.Decrease the money supply to increase the real interest rate, and so decrease aggregate demand.

2 points  

QUESTION 21

  1. Choose a “story” that best matches the data and the analysis from the model for the years 1994 to 1998. (The names of wars and policymakers have been removed so as not to give away the answer to those who know U.S. history.)
  2. a.The effects of a severe recession early in the decade were still being felt at the beginning of this period. Output was less than potential, and financial markets remained pessimistic. As financial markets gained confidence, however, borrowing costs fell for more-risky businesses, which increased investment spending. Tax cuts for households added to consumer spending, and the government increased spending on military purchases.
  3. b.At the beginning of this period the economy was expanding and output approached potential. Then a war helped cause large increases in oil prices, which increased business costs. Businesses cut back on production and passed higher costs to consumers in higher prices, as much as they could. High inflation increased money demand, and financial markets became pessimistic, which further contributed to the economy’s problems.
  4. c.The effects of recession early in the decade had faded by the beginning of this period. Rapid technological advance helped cause steady growth in output. These new technologies along with falling oil prices caused inflation to decrease, even though output rose above potential. Financial markets were optimistic throughout this period. They increased lending enough to hold interest rates stable despite rising incomes.
  5. d.At the beginning of this period the U.S. President decided to expand Federal social spending and fight a war against U.S. enemies at the same time. A large tax reduction that had been proposed by a previous President took effect. After that, consumer and government spending increased rapidly. Financial markets were generally optimistic, but increasing demand for money raised borrowing costs, especially for more-risky businesses.
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  • Attachment 2

Here is the macro mode! so far. Use these diagrams to sketch changes in the goods and money markets, Ifthat hefiosyon answer questions. Goods Market P AS aggregate Demand l (r, exp) 3X6) aggregate Suggly Input oosts (labor, machinery, materials}TechnologyNatural conditions Second Shifts1. Goods to goods, when outputdiffers from potential, aggregate Money Market supply shifts towards potentialoutput 2. Money to goods, through realMoney Demand interest rate effects on investment ‘“90’113 3. Goods to money, through inoome Prices (output) and price changes tomoney demand Money Supply Lender Expectations Federal Reserve Policy QM Here are some data fiom three periods of U.S. economic history. You ’1’! need these data to answer thequestions 3 through 2}. After World War I BAA-AAA CPI InterestReal GDP Unemploy- Inflation Rate Year Growth ment Rate Rate Spread1919 0.4% 2.3% 14.6% 1.8%1920 -1.5% 5.2% 15.6% 2.1%1921 -2.4% 11.3% 40.5% 2.4%1922 6.0% 8.6% -6.1% 2.0%

 
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PSYCHOLOGY 100 – A person with normal color vision is referred

1. A person with normal color vision is referred to as a: trichromat.

2. The coiled, snail-like tube in the inner ear that is filled with fluid is called the cochlea.

3. When a nerve impulse is sent to the brain from the ear, that impulse originates from: the oval window.

4. Pheromones are most relevant to which sense? smell

5. Which of the following examples best illustrates the process of perception? a drop of sugar hitting the taste buds on your tongue

6. Tactile information regarding pressure, pain, and warmth are sent to and processed in the: somatosensory cortex.

7. Imagine you are dribbling a basketball. Neural messages provided by your muscles, tendons, and joints give your brain feedback about the movements you are making in order to allow you to continue bouncing the ball. This feedback is an example of your:

kinesthetic sense.

8. The depth perception cues that require the use of only one eye are called:

c.monocular cues.

9. Visual illusions are primarily of interest to researchers studying perception because they:

c.provide important information about how perceptual processes work under normal conditions.

10. One study found that when presented with a picture of a group of people in a house, North American and European participants perceived an object as being a window behind a woman, while East Africans interpreted the same object as a box or basket on top of the woman’s head. This study best illustrates:

a.the effect of cultural experiences on picture perception.

11. Joey has no trouble seeing when he’s reading books and working on his computer, but he has a fair amount of difficulty seeing things in the distance. Joey most likely suffers from:

d.hyperopia.

12. In the eye, ________ are the color receptors and function best in bright illumination.

c.cones

13. The process in which the qualities of a sensory stimulus are converted into nerve impulses is specifically called:

b.transduction.

14. All of the following are cone sensitivity color pairs predicted by the opponent-process theory of color EXCEPT:

a.red-green.

b.yellow-blue.

c.yellow-green.

d.black-white.

15. Frequency determines the _____________ of a sound, while amplitude determines the _____________ of a sound.

a.loudness; pitch

b.loudness; decibels

c.pitch; loudness

d.hertz; pitch

16. Studies examining newborn infants’ visual preferences suggest that an infant would be most interested in which of the following?

a.a white circle

b.a black circle

c.a circle with a simple pattern inside of it.

d.a circle with a complex pattern inside of it.

17. Jean Piaget used the term __________ to refer to organized patterns of thought and action that guide children’s interactions with the world.

a.norm

b.schema

c.reflex

d.mental representation

18. Susan is a young child and she happens to know that fish swim. One day at the zoo, Susan sees a penguin swimming in a pool.Susan turns to her mother and says, “Look, the black-and-white fish is swimming!” The fact that Susan calls the penguin a fish best illustrates:

a.conservation.

b.the process of assimilation.

c.egocentric thinking.

d.a failure to understand object permanence.

19. Which of the following is most strongly associated with Jean Piaget’s sensorimotor stage of cognitive development?

a.object permanence

b.conservation

c.egocentricism

d.animism

20. A child who has developed object permanence but does not yet fully grasp the idea of conservation is most likely in Jean Piaget’s ____________ stage.

a.formal operational

b.sensorimotor

c.concrete operational

d.preoperational

21. Which of the following placements of a hypothetical third eye would be most characteristic of a child in the concrete operational stage?

a.between her other two eyes

b.on her hand

c.on the back of her head

d.on top of her head

22. The concept “theory of mind” is most closely related to which of the following constructs?

a.egocentrism

b.zone of proximal development

c.object permanence

d.conservation

23. The text defines _____________ as a biologically based predisposition to react to the environment in specific behavioral and emotional ways.

a.temperament

b.egocentrism

c.a zone of proximal development

d.conservation

24. In his research with monkeys, Harry Harlow found results suggesting that the process of animal attachment is facilitated by:

a.the first object that moves after a monkey is born.

b.receiving nutrition from the mother.

c.receiving social reinforcement from both parents.

d.body contact with a comforting object.

25. Which of the following lists John Bowlby’s phases of attachment behaviors in the proper order, from earliest to latest?

a.indiscriminate, discriminate, and specific

b.indiscriminate, specific, and discriminate

c.discriminate, indiscriminate, and specific

specific, indiscriminant, and discriminate

26. Which of the following statements concerning attachment is TRUE?

a.Stranger anxiety and separation anxiety occur at approximately the same time, when the child is about 6 or 7 months old.

b.Stranger anxiety and separation anxiety occur at approximately the same time, when the child is between 12 and 16 months old.

c.Stranger anxiety develops around the age of 6 or 7 months, whereas separation anxiety develops somewhere between the ages of 12 and 16 months.

d.Separation anxiety develops around the age of 6 or 7 months, whereas stranger anxiety develops somewhere between the ages of 12 and 16 months.

27. The “strange situation” is most strongly associated with which of the following?

a.temperament

b.moral development

c.attachment

d.egocentrism

28. When placed in the strange situation, Eric shows no distress at all when his mother leaves the room, and by the same token, he isn’t very excited when she returns. Overall, he doesn’t appear to be very attached to his mother, but he doesn’t resist when she picks him up to give him a kiss. Eric would most likely be classified by Mary Ainsworth as:

a.anxious-avoidant.

b.securely attached.

c.anxious-resistant.

d.resistant-avoidant.

29. Which of Jean Piaget’s stages of cognitive development is obtained during adolescence?

a.the postconventional stage

b.the preoperational stage

c.the concrete operational stage

d.the formal operational stage

30. A child is told a story about Bobby, who puts his teddy bear under his bed and then goes outside to play. While he is gone, Bobby’s mother comes in to clean his room, finds his teddy bear, and puts it in the closet. When asked where Bobby will look for his teddy bear when he returns, most 2- and 3-year-olds will say ____________ and most 4-year-olds will say ___________.

a.under the bed; under the bed as well

b.in the closet; in the closet as well

c.under the bed; in the closet

d.in the closet; under the bed

31. You decide to take a swim in a mountain lake after a long hike. When you first get in, the water feels extremely cold and you almost decide to get out, but after you take a few timid strokes, the water starts to feel less cold. Within a few minutes, the water merely feels refreshing and no longer feels like an ice bath. This example best illustrates the process of:

a.response cost punishment.

b.negative reinforcement.

c.habituation.

d.extinction.

32. Habituation has __________________ because it allows organisms to learn NOT to respond to _____________ stimuli.

a.extinction value; changing

b.strong adaptive significance; uneventful and familiar

c.a low response cost; novel

d.high secondary reinforcement value; discriminative

33. When Pavlov was conditioning his dogs to salivate in response to a tone, he first paired the tone with the presentation of food until the tone alone could induce salivation. In his experiments, which of the following was the unconditioned stimulus?

a.salivation in response to the food

b.the food

c.salivation in response to the tone

d.the tone

34. Pavlov observed that when he conditioned dogs to salivate to a particular tone, not only would they salivate to this tone but also to other similar tones. This phenomenon is known as:

a.negative reinforcement.

b.stimulus discrimination.

c.shaping.

d.stimulus generalization.

35. In classical conditioning, discrimination refers to how a(n):

a.CR can be triggered by many different stimuli.

b.CR is triggered by one stimulus but not by others.

c.CR can fade when a CS is repeatedly presented without the UCS.

d.UCS can become a CS.

36. A researcher in a classical conditioning experiment first conditions a dog to salivate in response to the presentation of a red circle.After this response has been established, she presents a light immediately before she displays the circle and after several trials, the light comes to trigger the salivation response. This example best demonstrates the process of:

a.preparedness.

b.stimulus generalization.

c.backward pairing of the CS and UCS.

d.higher-order conditioning.

37. John Watson and Rosalie Rayner (1920) conducted experiments with an 11-month-old baby named Albert to demonstrate how:

a.a neutral stimulus can become a CS by being paired with an established CS.

b.the principles of classical conditioning can be used to explain and create phobias.

c.the process of extinction is observable even in infants.

d.the key factor in classical conditioning is the perception of an association between the CS and the UCS.

38. Edward Thorndike based his “law of effect” on which of the following observations?

a.With trial and error, hungry cats will eventually learn to press a lever in order to escape a puzzle box.

b.The immune systems of rats can be improved or impaired by pairing specific drugs with distinct tastes.

c.Baby Albert was conditioned to fear a white rat and other similar-looking objects.

d.Dogs can be trained to salivate in response to a tone.

39. A mother has been continually nagging her daughter about how messy her room is. Finally, the daughter gets so tired of her mom’s complaints that she cleans her room, thus stopping the nagging of her mother. Given the fact that the withdrawal of the mother’s nagging served to strengthen the daughter’s room-cleaning behavior, the mother’s nagging would be considered a(n):

a.negative reinforcer.

b.positive reinforcer.

c.aversive punishment.

d.response cost punishment.

40. While walking through the mall, a young boy sees a new pair of shoes and immediately tells his grandmother that he would like to have them. The grandma initially refuses, prompting the boy to get upset and he starts to cry. The grandma hates to see her grandson get upset, so she changes her mind and buys him the shoes. In this example, we could say that the grandma’s initial refusal was _____________ and the boy’s mini-tantrum was ____________.

a.the conditioned stimulus; the conditioned response

b.the consequence; the discriminative stimulus

c.classically extinguished; extinguished via operant conditioning

d.aversively punished; positively reinforced

41. Shaping is defined as the process in which:

a.successive approximations of a desired behavior are reinforced.

b.a behavior is weakened by the removal of a consequence.

c.a neutral stimuli becomes a “reinforcer” because of its association with a primary reinforcer.

d.a behavior is strengthened by the presentation of a consequence.

42. Bobby’s parents are frustrated because he never cleans his room. In order to modify their son’s behavior, they start reinforcing (with 25 cents) every time he simply throws his clothes into a particular corner instead of all around the room. After some time passes, they only reinforce him if he puts his clothes in the hamper. As this process continues, Bobby’s parents keep gradually changing the terms of reinforcement so that Bobby has to do more and more of the tasks required to keep his room clean. After several months of this, Bobby cleans his entire room for the same 25-cent reward. This example best demonstrates the process of:

a.extinction.

b.shaping.

c.higher-order reinforcement.

d.latent learning.

43. A reinforcement system that utilizes such things as points or chips that can be redeemed later for tangible rewards to reinforce desired behavior is called:

a.a token economy.

b.shaping.

c.classical conditioning.

d.latent learning.

44. The term ______________ refers to how animals appear to be biologically “prewired” to easily learn behaviors that are related to their survival as a species because of evolutionary forces.

a.latent learning

b.operant extinction

c.preparedness

d.fixed action pattern

45. Which of the following is most strongly related to the concept of instinctive drift?

a.a chicken being trained to play baseball reacted to the ball as if it were food

b.rats that were shocked associated the shock with a buzzer and light but not a sweet taste

c.rats made ill by X-rays associated it with sweet water but not a light or buzzer

d.a coyote learns to avoid sheep because ranchers have paired sheep meat with lithium chloride

46. According to learning theorists, insight involves the:

a.positive reinforcement of a conditioned response on a variable schedule of reinforcement.

b.sudden perception of a useful relationship that helps to solve a problem.

c.identification of antecedent stimuli that indicate when a behavior will have certain consequences.

d.association of a previously neutral stimulus with an unconditioned stimulus.

47. A new skier who first watches and then copies his experienced friends is most likely making use of which learning strategy?

a.insight

b.observational learning

c.positive reinforcement

d.secondary reinforcement

48. Incoming visual or auditory information that is stored just long enough to be recognized is stored in:

a.procedural memory.

b.short-term memory.

c.declarative memory.

d.sensory memory.

49. Individual items are grouped into larger units of meaning in a process called:

a.grouping.

b.chunking.

c.elaborating.

d.encoding.

50. The capacity of ____________ memory appears to be unlimited.

a.working

b.long-term

c.sensory

d.iconic

51. _____________ is best defined as intentional processing that requires conscious attention.

a.Sensory processing

b.Effortful processing

c.Implicit memory

d.Automatic processing

52. If I were to ask you whether the word “force” rhymed with the word “course,” to make this distinction you would have to use __________ encoding, a method of processing that is considered to be _______ “deep” than/as semantic encoding.

a.structural; more

b.structural; less

c.phonological; equally

d.phonological; less

53. Your memory of what happened to you on a childhood trip to Disneyland would best be considered an example of:

a.procedural memory.

b.implicit memory.

c.semantic memory.

d.episodic memory.

54. The amnesia patient H.M. was able to correctly perform a mirror-tracing task, but he had no recollection of ever having learned it.This example most clearly illustrates the difference between:

a.explicit memory and declarative memory.

b.procedural memory and declarative memory.

c.implicit memory and nondeclarative memory.

d.semantic memory and episodic memory.

55. This multiple choice test question would be considered an example of a test of:

a.episodic memory.

b.semantic memory.

c.implicit memory.

d.procedural memory.

56. When you enter a nice restaurant, you typically expect that a host or hostess will seat you, that you will receive a menu before you order, and that you will receive a bill at the conclusion of the meal. These thoughts together are best considered to be an example of:

a.a retrieval cue.

b.priming.

c.overlearning.

d.a schema.

57. A __________ is any external or internal stimulus that triggers the activation of information stored in long-term memory.

a.prospective memory

b.semantic trigger

c.flashbulb memory

d.retrieval cue

58. Imagine that you have studied for an exam in a quiet environment and your physiological arousal has been low while you were studying. If on the day of the exam you were given the test in a quiet environment and your physiological arousal remained low, the concept of state-dependent memory would predict that your recall would __________ and the concept of context-dependent memory would predict that your recall would ___________.

a.worse; also be worse

b.better; be worse

c.worse; be better

d.better; also be better

59. When old memories interfere with a person’s ability to recall newer memories, it is called:

a.retrograde amnesia.

b.proactive interference.

c.anterograde amnesia.

d.retroactive interference.

60. The text discussed the case of a woman suffering from memory loss who could not consciously remember the fact that a researcher had pinpricked her hand the last time they met. Though her memory for events that took place prior to the amnesia is normal, after the amnesia she has experienced difficulty creating new memories. Her memory loss is best considered to be an example of:

a.retrograde amnesia.

b.retroactive interference.

c.proactive interference.

d.anterograde amnesia.

 
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Literature Essay

Essay 2 builds on the analytical skills you displayed in Essay 1, asking you to deepen those skills by applying two lenses to the readings. You will also be adding in your most recent reading, Heart of Darkness—a key piece of 20th-century literature. Exploring the intersection of two different themes is an opportunity to narrow your scope even further, giving you a stronger foundation for analysis. You need to take the same scholarly approach as you did in Essay 1: use APA citation style, and include a narrow, arguable thesis statement, separate supporting ideas with topic sentences/transitions, and a dynamic conclusion.

For Essay 2, write a 1000- to 1500-word essay in which you

  1. Select two of the themes of Postcolonial theory that you would like to explore. These will be the lenses through which you look at the literature. You are more than welcome to stick to the same initial theme you chose for Essay 1 and add in a new one, or you could choose two entirely new themes to apply.
  2. Describe the lenses and explain how/why they represent a promising combination. Why are they worthwhile to discuss in relationship to one another? How do they inform one another? How does the combination limit your approach in helpful, constructive, or opportune ways? Be specific.

This should be the bulk of your writing. How do the themes function within the story? What specific moments in each story are valuable for drawing deeper insights about the intersection between the two themes? Your analysis should include specific textual evidence, not simply general statements about the plot elements or characters. Ultimately, the analysis should answer this question: what do these three stories reveal about how these themes combine? What insight(s) can we take from the readings that apply beyond the literature? Apply that lens to The Epic of Gilgamesh, The Tempest, and Heart of Darkness.

 
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The Foundations Of Human Factors

The Operator’s Guide to Human Factors in Aviation (OGHFA) was a project designed to give information on Human Factors topics. It was founded and created by the Flight Safety Foundation European Advisory Committee. We will use this guide throughout the course in different activities. However, this guide and any other materials from SKYbrary are not to be purchased for this course.

Ruminating Writing Assignment:

Refer to the module materials, outside sources, and this human factor’s guide. Read SKYbrary: An Introduction to the Purpose and Use of the Operators Guide to Human Factors in Aviation (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site. and submit a two-page paper (not including cover and reference pages) defining human factors and the applications associated with it. APA formatting is required. 

Travel back in time and explain the foundation of human factors and its historic value throughout the last 100 years. And finally, examine the need for human factors research, its meaning and purpose.

Your paper will automatically be evaluated through Turnitin when you submit your assignment in this activity. Turnitin is a service that checks your work for improper citation or potential plagiarism by comparing it against a database of web pages, student papers, and articles from academic books and publications. Ensure that your work is entirely your own and that you have not plagiarized any material!

 
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