fallacy of affirming the consequent argument form

1. Which one expresses the fallacy of affirming the consequent argument form? (a) If A, then B; Not A; It follows that not B.

(b) If A, then B; Not B; Therefore, and without a doubt, not A.

(d) B. And, of course, A only if then B. Thus, and without a doubt, it has to be that A is true.

2. If the following argument is one of the 7 forms we covered (5 famous valid forms or 2 famous invalid forms), then write the name of the form and say whether the form is valid or invalid. If the argument is not one of the 7 forms, then write “unnamed form.”—If Frodo is saved, Gollum will lose his precious ring. Therefore, Gollum will lose his precious ring given that Sam makes it through Shelob’s lair. This is because Sam makes it through Shelob’s lair only insofar as Frodo will be saved.

Scheme of Abbreviation

Q: Gollum will lose his precious ring. P: Frodo is saved.

M: Sam makes it through Shelob’s lair

3. If Williams wins the election, recycling will become mandatory. Jarboe wins the election only provided that universal garbage collection will become mandatory. Since Williams will win the election or Jarboe will win it, it follows that either recycling or universal garbage collection will become mandatory.—This argument is:

(a) invalid

(b) inductive

(e) constructive dilemma (valid)

4. Put the following in standard form (at both the statement and argument level).—Ugly babies do not learn to drive. Why? Here are the reasons, one by one. (1) Either John does not like French women or John does not like girls. (2) John is overzealous if he does not like French women. (3) John does not like girls only on the assumption that he does not like police radar. (5) Primary prevention is not considered a chief priority.

Scheme of abbreviation

U: Ugly babies learn to drive.

F: John likes French women.

G: John likes girls.

Z: John is overzealous.

R: John likes police radar.

P: primary prevention is considered a chief priority.

5. What does cultural ethical relativism say about conformism?

(a) Conforming to the norms and values of your own culture is always right.

(b) Opposing the norms and values of your own culture is always wrong (and so if you were Jesus, living when and where he lived and doing what he did, your opposition to the norms and values would be wrong). (c) People ought to dress alike.

(d) a and b

(e) a and c

6. Construct a good counterexample in order to show that the following argument is a substitution instance of an invalid argument form. (Remember, “or” is used in an inclusive sense.)—Either Jones is at home or Jones is in his car. Jones is at home. Therefore, Jones is not in his car.

7. The advocate of ethical egoism would say that person A is necessarily doing the right thing in doing x if person A sincerely believes that he is doing the right thing in doing x (and, let us add, he really desires to do x).—T or F?

8. One popular misconception about philosophy is that it does not make real progress like the hard sciences. What would you say to someone who voiced such a misconception?

9. Another popular misconception about philosophy is that it is all just opinion. Why might someone think this and what would you say in response?

10. Could an Ethical Realist agree to the following claim: action x can be morally acceptable for me and yet at the same time morally unacceptable for you?

(a) Yes. Although you and I are doing the same action (say, watering the lawn), we might be in different circumstances (say, I am in a place where water is plentiful and you are in a place where water is lacking) such that it is morally acceptable—independent of anyone’s say-so—for me to do the action and it is morally unacceptable—independent of anyone’s say-so—for you to do that same action.

(b) No. It is saying that right and wrong differs between people, which means that right and wrong is relative to each person.

(d) b and c

(e) None of the above

If you reject divine command theory, then that does not mean that you reject the existence of God.—T or F?
According to divine command theory (and all the ethical relativist theories, for that matter), the fact that

child abuse causes physical and psychological trauma has no bearing on whether child abuse is wrong.—T or F?

13. Assume that you are an ethical egoist. Why does it seem that, in most cases at least, it is morally impermissible for you to defend ethical egoism, publically advocate for it?

(a) Because ethical egoism is a view defended by Ayn Rand, an infamous prostitute that no one would ever want to be associated with.

(b) Because ethical egoism is a form of a rather reprehensible view: ethical nihilism

(c) Because it is in your best interest to have others believe that it is right to promote your interests rather than theirs.

(d) a and c

(e) All of the above

What distinguishes ethical relativism/conventionalism from ethical nihilism/subjectivism?
(a) Ethical relativism holds that the truth of ethical statements depends on someone’s say-so whereas ethical nihilism holds that ethical truths are true regardless as to anyone’s say so.
(b) Ethical relativism holds that right and wrong are determined by society/culture whereas ethical nihilism holds that right and wrong is determined by each individual (hence the fact that it is also called “ethical subjectivism”).
(c) Ethical relativism holds that the truth of ethical statements depends on someone’s say-so whereas ethical nihilism holds that ethical statements have no truth value.
(d) Ethical relativism holds that right and wrong are determined by someone’s say-so whereas ethical nihilism holds that statements concerning what is right or what is wrong are neither true nor false.
(e) c and d
Ethical egoism holds that you should never act in ways that benefit others.—T or F?
Ethical egoism is the doctrine that each person always pursues his or her own interests.—T or F?

In “B only if A,”
(a) A provides a necessary condition for B.
(b) B provides a sufficient condition for A.
(c) A provides a sufficient condition for B.
(d) A provides both a necessary and sufficient condition for B. (e) a and b
Suppose that person O and person P both belong to the same culture. Suppose that O thinks that

homosexuality is morally impermissible whereas B says that homosexuality is morally permissible. According to cultural ethical relativism, the way to decide who wins the disagreement between A and B is simply to conduct a poll: if the majority of people in that culture agree with O, then O is right.—T or F?

19. Ethical Nihilism is the view that most ethical statements are difficult to prove or disprove.—T or F?

20. Cultural ethical relativism is the descriptive doctrine that customs vary from society to society.—T or F?

21. Should members of my culture impose its values on another culture? How will a consistent cultural ethical relativist answer this question?

(a) It is wrong for my culture to impose its own value on other cultures.

(b) It is wrong for my culture to impose its own values on other cultures even when those other cultures value committing atrocities.

(c) It is permissible for my culture to impose its own values on other cultures so long as those other cultures value committing atrocities.

(d) It is permissible for my culture to impose its own values on other cultures so long as it is done without military force.

(e) It is permissible for my culture to impose its own values on other cultures so long as my culture says that it is permissible.

22. Which form ethical relativism says that the following statement is false: “considered independent from anyone’s say-so, the actions of necrophiliac serial killer Ed Kemper are neither morally wrong nor morally right.”

(a) Personal ethical relativism but not cultural ethical relativism and divine command theory
(b) Cultural ethical relativism and divine command theory, but not personal ethical relativism
(c) All the forms of ethical relativism
(d) None of the forms of ethical relativism
(e) None of the above

23.

Ethical relativism agrees with ethical realism that there are ethical truths—T or F?
What is a common ethical-egoist reason why it is typically bad to harm others?

Some ethical egoists argue for ethical egoism by pointing out that the best way to promote everyone’s

interests is for each of us to adopt ethical egoism. What is the problem with this argument?

26. According to psychological egoism, we are able to perform an action only if we believe that it will promote our own interests. Describe a scenario that seems to refute psychological egoism.

27. Suppose that person O is an ethical realist who thinks that God exists and makes true pronouncements on ethical matters. One of these true pronouncements, suppose, is that x is impermissible. In this case, what is the correct direction of explanation according to O?

(a) God says that x is impermissible because x is impermissible

(b) x is impermissible on no other grounds than that God says so

(e) none of the above

Why is it that, if divine command theory is true, what God says concerning right and wrong is arbitrary?
(a) To say that God’s decisions are arbitrary is to say that God has no reason for determining that it is wrong to do what it is wrong to do.
(b) To say that God’s decisions are arbitrary is to say that God has sufficient reason for determining that it is right to do what it is right to do.
(c) Divine Command Theorists must say that God has no reason for determining that it is wrong to do x (x being something wrong to do) because if there were another reason we would say that it is wrong to do x for this other reason, not because God commanded it (which violates divine command theory).
(d) a and b
(e) b and c
One objection to divine command theory is that it does not seem workable. On what grounds is it commonly

argued that divine command theory is unworkable?

(a)

There is no way to determine, it seems, which God is the one true God—and even if we knew which

God was the one true God, divine command theory does not tell us how to distinguish legitimate divine

commands from illegitimate ones.

(b) Divine command theory entails morally abhorrent results such as that it would be morally obligatory to

rape innocent infants for fun if God commanded us to do so.

to have people accept their status as slaves of the white man.

(d) a and b

(e) None of the above

30. Using the relevant tools for evaluating inductive arguments, determine whether the following argument is successful. Make sure to explain your use of these tools led to your answer.

Istvan’s new car is bright blue, has fabric upholstery, and gets decent gas mileage. John’s new car is also bright blue and has fabric upholstery. Therefore, it probably gets decent gas mileage as well.

31. Using the relevant tools for evaluating inductive arguments, determine whether the following argument is successful. Make sure to explain your use of these tools led to your answer.

U.S. Senator Tom Coburn says that homosexual behavior is rampant in the Oklahoma school system. It is likely that this is true, therefore (after all, Oklahoma is Coburn’s home state and surely he knows about the schools in his own home state).

32. Using the relevant tools for evaluating inductive arguments, determine whether the following argument is successful. Make sure to explain your use of these tools led to your answer.

Chad, a beer sommelier (that is, an expert on beer), says that the new Hudson Valley beer, Gerbil triple IPA, is extremely bitter. Thus Chad finds Gerbil triple IPA disgusting.

33. Using the relevant tools for evaluating inductive arguments, determine whether the following argument is successful. Make sure to explain your use of these tools led to your answer.

On four separate occasions (across 2 years) I drank a can of Gerbil Triple IPA beer (from different six- packs) and found it bitter. Probably I would find every can of Gerbil Triple IPA beer bitter.

Which of the following is true?
(a) Ethical Egoism forbids person A being concerned with helping person B for B’s own sake.
(b) Ethical Egoism forbids person A being concerned with helping person B.
(c) Ethical Egoism holds that my helping others should only be done as a means to my own interests (d) b and c
(e) a and c
Using the relevant tools for evaluating inductive arguments, determine whether the following argument is

successful. Make sure to explain your use of these tools led to your answer.

Out of 100,000 surveyed voters from Orange County California (a county that is overwhelmingly Republican), 71 % reported that they would vote republican in the next governor election. Clearly the Republican candidate for governor will be elected.

36. Construct a good counterexample to show that the following argument is a substitution instance of an invalid argument form.

If evolution by natural selection is not a myth, then animal species are not fixed and immutable. Since

animal species are not fixed and immutable, it follows that evolution by natural selection is not a myth. Scheme of Abbreviation

E Evolution by natural selection is a myth

A: Animal species are fixed and immutable

37. Could an Ethical Realist agree to the following claim: what I think is morally right is not necessarily what you think is morally right?

(a) No. It is saying that right and wrong differs between people, which means that right and wrong is relative to each person.

(b) Yes. The fact that two people have differing moral opinions does not imply that there is not a correct answer. One person could be right and the other mistaken, or they both could be incorrect and the correct moral opinion might be a third option.

(c) Yes. Ethical Realism is the chief form of Conventionalism and the claim states one of the most popular forms of conventionalism: existentialism or personal ethical relativism.

(d) b and c

(e) none of the above

38.

For questions 39-42 fill in the blanks with “necessary” or “sufficient” to make the following statements true. Afterwards, translate that statement into a conditional. (If you get both parts right of each question, then you get 2 points. If you get only one part of each question right, then you get only one point.)

39. Being a tiger is a ______________ condition for being an animal. 40. Being an animal is a ____________ condition for being a tiger.

41. Having a racket is a ______________ condition for playing tennis. 42. Burning leaves is a ______________ condition for producing smoke. 43. The following argument is invalid.—Tor F?

Which of the following express(es) the relationship between psychological egoism and ethical egoism?

(a) Ethical egoism is frequently used as a premise in arguing for Psychological egoism.

(b) It is possible to be an ethical egoist without being a psychological egoist.

(d) B and C

(e) A and C

Since Moby Dick was written by Shakespeare, and Moby Dick is a science fiction novel, it follows that Shakespeare wrote a science fiction novel.

All arguments must have more than one premise.—T or F?
Cultural Ethical Relativism implies that each culture is morally infallible. What does this mean?
(a) That each culture is tolerant.
(b) That each culture ought to be tolerant.
(c) If most of the people in a certain society believes that x is right, then there is a good change that x is right.
(d) a and c
(e) none of the above.
An argument can have 100 premises.—T or F?
An argument that draws a conclusion that something is true because someone has said that it is true is

typically a deductive argument.—T or F?

48. An argument that presents two alternatives and eliminates one, leaving the other as the conclusion, is an inductive argument.—T or F?

49. The most popular objection to Divine Command Theory is that it has morally abhorrent consequences. For example, it would be morally good to rape infants for fun if God said that it was morally good to do so. One might be tempted to defend divine command theory by reasoning in the following way: “But God would never say that raping infants for fun is good: raping infants for fun is bad.” Why is it, however, that Divine Command Theory is not allowed to give such a response?

(a) To say that “God would not say that x is morally good since x is morally bad” is to say that x being morally bad explains God’s saying that x is bad, but the direction of explanation provided by divine command theory is that God’s saying that x is bad explains x’s being bad.

(b) Such a response contradicts divine command theory, which says that there is nothing inherent in an action that makes it good or bad; the action has the moral standing that it does simply because God chooses to label it good or bad.

(e) b and c

50. In contrast to physics and microbiology, which are not essential to many other disciplines, logic is essential to every endeavor that involves any form of communication: the lawyer needs it to formulate arguments to a judge or jury, the physician needs it to give a credible rationale for the use of a medication, the businessperson needs it to write a coherent report, the anthropologist needs it to write a well-reasoned article, and literally everyone needs it in day-to-day dealings with friends, relatives, and associates.—T or F?

1. If it is not the case that argument x is a substitution instance of a valid argument form, then it must have an invalid form.—T or F?

2. Describe a scenario in which an ethical egoist would say that killing someone would be wrong. And then describe a scenario in which the ethical egoist might say that killing someone is morally right.

3. How do ethical skepticism and ethical nihilism differ?

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Initial Post: View the The landfill harmonic orchestra

As educators, knowing about the 21st-century skills is important and being able to recognize the skills within specific examples is an indicator that you truly understand them and how they work in application. In Week One, we discussed the story of Caine and his arcade as a way to explore how culture influences creativity, imagination, and inventiveness. In this discussion, we go a step further by considering 21st-century skills in relation to another inspiring story of creativity, imagination, and inventiveness.

The Landfill Harmonic project showcases the story of a garbage picker, a music teacher, and a group of children from a Paraguayan slum that, out of necessity, started creating instruments entirely out of garbage found in a landfill.

Your reflections on this story will provide a rich backdrop for learning more about the impact that social and cross-cultural skills have on the more academic pursuit of keeping children engaged in learning 21st-century skills. After reviewing this week’s Instructor Guidance material, you will have a good working knowledge of social and cross-cultural skills and will be able to recognize how they might support the learning of 21st-century skills, especially within the Landfill Harmonic project.

Initial Post: View the The landfill harmonic orchestraLinks to an external site. video about the Landfill Harmonic project, and then view more specific information about the project on the Landfill HarmonicLinks to an external site. website. Next, review the Framework for 21st Century LearningLinks to an external site. web page. Then, create an initial post that addresses the following in at least one paragraph for each:

Describe the Learning and Innovation 4Cs (i.e., communication, collaboration, critical thinking, and creativity) (click on the 4Cs Research Series tab on the right-hand side of the page) as well as Life and Career Skills from the Framework for 21st Century Learning (see item 4 under 21st Century Student Outcomes) that you perceive the students learned and applied as a result of their participation in the Landfill Harmonic project.
Describe the cultural competencies you perceive were demonstrated by the students in the Landfill Harmonic project (these are summarized in the Instructor Guidance for this week).
Describe the social factors and attitudes you perceive were needed to initiate the project, including a consideration of the cross-cultural skills that may be necessary for supporters to sustain the Landfill Harmonic project.

Instructor Guidance

Week 2

Week Overview

Have you ever participated in a major creative ensemble like a band, orchestra or stage production? What about contributing to a team in other ways, like sports or church groups? If so, take a moment to consider all the different types of skills you learned participating in group activities outside school. It’s easy to readily identify activity-specific skills, like the musical skills learned as a member of a band or orchestra. The motor skills needed to contribute to a sports team might be easy to identify as well. But a closer look at such activities also reveals many other possible skill sets learned and applied through participating in such endeavors. Communication skills, problem-solving skills, constructive collaboration skills (including leadership skills), and even creativity skills are facilitated in some capacity within most group activities. These types of skills reside outside the scope of traditional subject-area skills typically promoted in school, but they are certainly skills that are applied daily in people’s lives outside school. They are “worthwhile,” and they form the core of the 21st century skills identified in by the Partnership for 21st Century SkillsLinks to an external site..

This week, you will learn the basic components of learning experiences aligned with the principles of culturally relevant pedagogy. These principles reflect a direct application of the roles culture play in teaching and learning that were introduced last week. The week begins with an analysis of an inspiring story about an orchestra that was created by residents of a Latin American slum situated within a landfill, using instruments fashioned out of the surrounding garbage. The musicians are school-aged children from the slum itself, and a closer examination of the forces involved in the orchestra’s creation makes it easy to identify the role culture can play in helping to define meaningful, purposeful learning contexts that support the learning of worthwhile 21st century skills. This activity will contribute toward your expertise in evaluating how integrating social and cross-cultural skills supports 21st century learning experiences for diverse populations, and how acquisition of 21st century skills through culturally relevant learning opportunities supports student achievement.

Following the “Landfill Harmonics” analysis is a personal analysis of factors in the world outside school that influence and affect success inside school. Of course, there is no better way to do this than to examine the factors in your own life right now that influences your success in online graduate school learning. Such critical reflections can help you learn more about how challenges students face outside of school affect their ability to achieve academically and socially in school. This is important because it helps you further recognize the value of adopting more culturally relevant instructional approaches in classroom learning experiences.

Finally, you will view a dynamic presentation by a high school student who tries to explain why he thinks kids hate school. Spoiler alert: it reflects the same reasons many adults in your situation might hate college. OK, hate is a strong word. But how is this for a strong word: RELEVANCE. According to the high school presenter, kids his age hate high school because they do not see the relevance of what they are learning in school to their lives outside school.

Why might high school students feel this way? Is it THEIR fault they don’t see the relevance?

Cultural Relevance

Once of the greatest characteristics of culturally relevant pedagogy is that it helps educators consider relevance from the perspective of the students they teach. In the final assignment for the week, you are asked to consider how a culturally relevant approach to a specific student’s educational experiences might have enabled greater success in school.

The skills promoted through this week’s activities will help you successfully accomplish part of the final project as well. These skills relate to designing culturally relevant instructional experiences that naturally facilitate a number of 21st century skills

Before you continue reading, please take a couple minutes to view the video clip above from the 1999 science fiction classic move The Matrix.

This week, you will watch another video that presents a very earnest and interesting indictment of education from a student currently enrolled in high school. In the video, Nikhil Goyal reflects on the reasons why he and other students like him hate school. The central theme is one of relevance, or more precisely, school’s lack of it. He makes a deliberate cultural reference to his generation taking the red pill (as opposed to the blue pill), which in the movie The Matrix represents the choice between embracing the sometimes painful truth of reality (red pill) and the blissful ignorance of illusion (blue pill). In light of this, he spends most of his time telling the story of Nick Perez, a boy who was marginalized in school and medicated so that he could fit into the parameters of thought and behavior expected of him. He became disillusioned by the lack of relevancy and interest in his studies, and disenfranchisement eventually led him to drop out of school. However, he developed a passion for computer coding after attending an informal education computer camp, and the rest, as they say, is history. He taught himself everything he needed to secure a good job as a computer programming, and he is currently (and successfully) employed with an advertising firm…and he loves his job. All of this without formal education.

You will analyze Nikhil’s messages about Nick Perez and try to consider some culturally relevant solutions to the obvious educational challenges posed. What could have helped Nick succeed in school is what can help many students from diverse backgrounds succeed in school but defining success requires educators to make very sobering decisions about WHAT is important to be learned. The “red pill” of truth for educators might not simply reflect the notion that HOW they might be teaching is not reaching all students, but also WHAT they are trying to help their students learn may be outdated an irrelevant in our 21st century world. Recognizing this truth is one of the important assumptions that this course makes about learning. Related to this assumption are all the following assumptions this course makes:

21st century skills matter tremendously in the real world outside school and should be addressed more explicitly by professional educators.
Creativity and innovation reflect categories of 21st century skills that can help teachers provide more successful culturally-relevant experiences for their students.
Facilitating cultural outcomes or competencies is an important component of culturally relevant pedagogy.

These assumptions are based on a more progressive philosophical belief that schools have a responsibility to facilitate skills that go beyond simply addressing basic reading, writing and arithmetic skills. This week, these assumptions will be applied within three distinct learning activities designed to help you learn the following specific skills:

Evaluate how integrating social and cross-cultural skills supports 21st century learning experiences for diverse populations.
Illustrate how acquisition of 21st century skills through culturally relevant learning opportunities supports student achievement.
Relate challenges students face outside of school to their ability to achieve academically and socially.

A critical factor in this course and in many subsequent courses you will take in the Master of Arts in Education (MAED) Program is that of 21st century skills and the overall framework in which these skills are organized. Navigate to the Partnership for 21st Century Skills’ Framework for 21st Century LearningLinks to an external site. page to learn more.

Cultural competencies reflect another important set of skills that complement many of the 21st century skills. Instruction designed to facilitate these competencies is a very important part of the model for culturally relevant pedagogy presented by Ladson-Billing (1995). After reading this important work, you should have a better understanding of the following four important cultural competencies:

Awareness of one’s own cultural worldview (including biases)
Knowledge of different cultural practices and worldviews
Positive attitudes and open-mindedness toward cultural differences
Ability to work successfully with others from different cultures

The Ladson-Billings article also provides the general background for establishing a model for culturally relevant instruction. To reinforce this understanding, read all of Chapter Ten in Wardle (2013). A basic summary of strategies defining culturally relevant instruction include the following:

Maximizing academic success through relevant instructional experiences
Addressing cultural competence through reinforcing students’ cultural integrity
Involving students in the construction of knowledge
Building on students’ interests and linguistic resources
Tapping home and community resources
Understanding students’ cultural knowledge
Using interactive and constructivist teaching strategies
Examining the curriculum from multiple perspectives
Promoting critical consciousness through opportunities to challenge predominant elements of the students’ social norms

Your design in the final course assignment (Week Six) will be evaluated based in part on these criteria, so it is very important for you to understand them and apply them to the design of culturally relevant instruction.

Another important skill set that will be applied throughout the coming weeks is identifying how challenges that students face outside of school affect them academically and socially in school. Read Wardle Chapters 8 and 11 to better understand such connections.

Next week you will learn more about culturally relevant instruction and its applications within the real world, particularly as it affects the teaching and learning of 21st century skills–skills that matter.

Discussion Response Expectations

Discussion: Your first discussion post asks you to analyze the factors that likely contributed to the development of the Landfill Harmonics program and determine the types of 21st century skills supported by the project.

For example, if you grew up in a home where reading was not modeled or discussed much, you may have had difficulties in school getting excited about reading. A broader example is growing up at or below the poverty level. Direct effects of this might include less parental involvement, due to parents working multiple jobs to make ends meet, which is known to result in less attention to homework and lower rates of success by students in school. Keep in mind that some challenges may not have been negative. For example, you might have been bullied at home, and the effects may have been either negative (you bullied others in school and were removed from the classroom regularly) or positive (you were more empathetic to kids who got bullied, made lots of friends, and had positive social interactivity in school).

Assignment Expectations:

Key Terms:

Cultural competencies
Culturally relevant pedagogy

After viewing a presentation by a high school student about why kids don’t like school, you will recommend strategies that might have helped one high school drop-out profiled in the presentation. These strategies are based on your emerging understanding of culturally relevant instruction that might have had a positive impact on one student who dropped out of school.

If you are enrolled in the MAED Program, it is imperative that you keep copies of all assignments completed in this course. You will return to them for the portfolio that you will create in your final MAED course. This portfolio is a culminating project that will demonstrate that you have met program outcomes.

References

MovieClips. (2011, March 26). Blue Pill or Red Pill – The Matrix (2/9) Movie CLIP (1999) HDLinks to an external site. [Video file]. Retrieved from https://

Ladson-Billing, G. (1995). But that’s just good teaching! The case for culturally relevant pedagogy. Theory into Practice, 34(3), 159-164.

Partnership for 21st Century SkillsLinks to an external site. (http://

Partnership for 21st Century Skills. Framework for 21st century learningLinks to an external site.. Retrieved from http://

Wardle, F, (2013). Human relationships and learning in the multicultural environment. San Diego, CA: Bridgepoint Education, Inc.

Required Resources

Text

Wardle, F. (2013). Human relationships and learning in the multicultural environment [Electronic version]. Retrieved from https://content.ashford.edu/

Discrimination in Curricula and Pedagogy

Chapter 4: Addressing Racism and Discrimination in Curricula and Pedagogy
Chapter 8: The Impact of Diversity on Learning

Multimedia

Jammer jhed. (2012, December 13). The landfill harmonic orchestra. Retrieved from the Landfill Harmonic OrchestraLinks to an external site..

This video provides information about an orchestra created from ingenuity and landfill products and will assist you in both the Discussion and Assignment this week, as well as future Assignments. Accessibility StatementLinks to an external site. Privacy PolicyLinks to an external site.

Teachers Lounge (2014, February 11). Why kids hate school?: Nikhil Goyal at [email protected] to an external site. [Video file]. Retrieved from https://youtu.be/0Iz4APbOOcI

This video provides information about a young man’s experience with school and will assist you in the Discussions and Assignment this week, as well as with future Assignments. Accessibility StatementLinks to an external site. Privacy PolicyLinks to an external site.

Web Pages

Framework for 21st century learningLinks to an external site.. (2007). Retrieved from http:// article provides information about 21st Century Learning and will assist you in the Discussions and the Assignment this week, as well as in future weeks.

Recommended Resources

Article

Ladson-Billings, G. (1995). But that’s just good teaching! The case for culturally relevant pedagogy [PDF]. Theory Into Practice, 34(3), 159-165. Retrieved from https://nationalequityproject.files.wordpress.com/2012/03/ladson-billings_1995.pdf

The full-text version of this article is available through the Proquest database in the Ashford University Library. This article provides information about issues related to cultural relevance, funds of knowledge, and teaching may assist you in the Discussions and Assignment this week, as well as future Assignments.

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The Puritans in late sixteenth-century England.

The Puritans in late sixteenth-century England… denied the concept that everyone had a calling” from God. incorporated into their religion many of the traditional Roman Catholic practices, such as burning incense and praying to dead saints. championed literacy so that everyone could read and interpret the Bible. gave final authority over religious doctrine to bishops and synods. ——————————————————————————–Question 2 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)The Northwest Ordinance of 1787… prohibited slavery in the Northwest Territory. funded an exploratory party to locate the Northwest Passage. provided for the eventual creation of eight to ten new states in the Northwest Territory. required compulsory elementary education in each new township in the Northwest Territory. ——————————————————————————–Question 3 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)The Whiskey Rebellion was significant for all of the following reasons except… the Whiskey rebels were acting in the tradition of the Patriots of 1765 and the Shaysites of 1786, only now they also waved banners proclaiming the French Revolutionary slogan “Liberty, Equality, Fraternity.” Washington used force to put down the first strong challenge to the federal government’s authority in order to make and enforce a law. by suppressing the revolt, Washington deterred secessionist movements on the frontier. when he learned that Thomas Jefferson covertly supported the insurgents, Washington publicly broke with him, precipitating open party conflict. ——————————————————————————–Question 4 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)The Compromise of 1850 did not include which of the following? Abolition of the slave trade in the District of Columbia. Adoption of a strong fugitive slave law. The organization of the New Mexico and Utah territories on the basis of popular sovereignty. Abolition of slavery in the Oregon Territory. ——————————————————————————–Question 5 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)The ancestors of the Native American peoples… always lived in the Western Hemisphere. migrated by sea from Polynesia. migrated by sea from China. migrated by land from northeastern Asia. ——————————————————————————–Question 6 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)Between 1800 and 1860 white planters moved to the lower South to… transform the West into a free labor society. recreate the conditions of slavery. invest in agricultural development. flee antislavery laws in the upper South. ——————————————————————————–Question 7 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)In the election of 1864, Lincoln… won by a slim margin, thanks to the votes of Union soldiers. was swept to victory by Sherman’s victory at Atlanta. won despite the fact that three out of every four Union soldiers voted against him. lost the popular vote to McClellan, but won the electoral vote. ——————————————————————————–Question 8 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)Mob violence against abolitionists… was confined to border and southern cities such as Baltimore, St. Louis, New Orleans, and Nashville. was sometimes led by well-to-do “gentlemen of property and standing.” targeted only the free black communities and the homes of prominent abolitionist spokespersons. never resulted in the death of an abolitionist spokesperson or free black. ——————————————————————————–Question 9 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)Which of the following statements most accurately characterizes one effect of Enlightenment on America. American thinkers agreed with John Locke’s idea that political authority was divinely ordained. Cotton Mather and the Boston physician Nicholas Boyleston fought against smallpox inoculation. Some ministers combined Lockean political principles with Calvinist theology in order to attack the role of bishops and vest power in the laity. European Enlightenment ideas had little impact on Americans until 1750. ——————————————————————————–Question 10 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)Which of the following statements most accurately characterizes immigration during the 1840s and 1850s? Most immigrants settled in the South to take advantage of jobs in industry and agriculture. Most of the Irish who arrived were poverty-stricken peasants. The largest group of immigrants came from eastern and southern Europe. The poorest immigrants came from Wales and Scotland. ——————————————————————————–Question 11 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)Benjamin Franklin… received an unusually thorough education in England, which put him in touch with Enlightenment ideas unknown to most Americans. was a fervent advocate of the Enlightenment but claimed to be equally influenced by the Bible. was the son of a devout Philadelphia Quaker. founded a club of mutual improvement in Philadelphia to discuss moral and political questions. ——————————————————————————–Question 12 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)At the same time that Parliament imposed the Stamp Act, it also passed the Quartering Act, which required… Americans to vacate their houses or take in British troops on the demand of any commander. colonial governments to provide barracks and food for British troops. that Americans convicted of treason be hanged and “quartered”; that is, cut into four pieces by the hangman. that collectors of the stamp tax receive a commission of one-quarter of the revenue they took in. ——————————————————————————–Question 13 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)The abolitionist William Lloyd Garrison… attacked the US Constitution because it condoned slavery. was a minister who came to his antislavery convictions through the evangelical crusades of the 1820s. demanded the immediate abolition of slavery, with federally funded compensation for former slaveholders. criticized the colonizationists for moving too slowly in their efforts to emancipate slaves. ——————————————————————————–Question 14 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)The immediate cause for the Texan Americans’ declaration of independence on March 2, 1836 was that… the Texan “war party” sabotaged the efforts of Stephen F. Austin and other “peace party” leaders who were then negotiating with the Mexican government for greater autonomy. the new president, General Antonio Lopez de Santa Ana, cut short Stephen F. Austin’s negotiations with the Mexican government and appointed a military commandant for Texas. Mexican troops commanded by General Antonio Lopez de Santa Ana destroyed the American garrison defending the Alamo. Texans prisoners at Goliad were massacred by Mexican troops commanded by General Antonio Lopez de Santa Ana. ——————————————————————————–Question 15 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)George Washington’s success as a general is most accurately explained by… his political astuteness and ability to act decisively. his strong personality, which enabled him to override the decisions of Congress. a lack of any competitors among the other Patriot officers. his willingness to overlook the actions of discontented soldiers, which endeared him to his troops. ——————————————————————————–Question 16 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)A peace treaty was not signed until nearly two years after the surrender at Yorktown because… the American negotiators sought delays so that state governments could coordinate their demands. France and Spain stalled, hoping for some major naval victory or territorial conquest. members of Parliament could not reach agreement on the concessions that they were willing to make. the usual delays in transatlantic communications prolonged the process. ——————————————————————————–Question 17 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)In their petitions to Congress in the 1830s, abolitionists frequently called for… appropriating funds to compensate slave owners for emancipating their slaves. abolishing slavery in the District of Columbia. ending the Atlantic slave trade. impeaching any president who condoned slavery and barring slave owners from serving in Congress. ——————————————————————————–Question 18 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)The plantation elite were characterized by all of the following criteria except… roughly three thousand families comprised of the plantation elite category. plantation elites owned more than 1,000 slaves. plantation elites owned huge tracts of fertile land. plantation elites were both traditional aristocrats from the Old South and market entrepreneurs of the New South. ——————————————————————————–Question 19 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)The Missouri Compromise of 1820… resulted from the conciliatory efforts of Congressman James Tallmadge of New York. provided for Maine to enter the Union as a free state in 1820, and Missouri to enter as a slave state the following year. prohibited slavery in the Louisiana Territory south of latitude 36°30´. convinced the aged and retired Thomas Jefferson that the peaceful extinction of slavery by mutual agreement was now in sight. ——————————————————————————–Question 20 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)Which of the following statements most accurately characterizes the British colonial frontier before 1750? Hundreds of British colonists moved into the area west of the Appalachians. The Iroquois covenant chain broke down, and the confederacy’s power diminished. A lack of natural transportation routes kept the British east of the Appalachians. The French abandoned their fur-trading forts in the Ohio region. ——————————————————————————–Question 21 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)By 1840 the South was on the cutting edge of the Market Revolution because… it produced and exported 1.5 million bales of raw cotton, over two-thirds of the world supply. planters were using European immigrants as industrial workers. planters were building factories to process cotton. southern society was dominated by free labor. ——————————————————————————–Question 22 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)The Glorious Revolution in England and America… had little impact on either England or North America apart from deposing the Stuarts and barring Roman Catholics from the English throne. contributed significantly to the creation of a new empire based on commerce, with a curb on royal monopolies, encouragement of enterprising merchants, and development of the American colonies as a source of wealth. created democratic governments in Massachusetts, New York, and Maryland, but not in England. represented a major step toward democracy in both England and the North American colonies. ——————————————————————————–Question 23 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)A successful, full-scale revolt was nearly impossible for colonial-era slaves to achieve primarily because… even the Indians would refuse to help them if they escaped. whites were armed and, except in coastal South Carolina, outnumbered slaves. whites enlisted Native Americans to track down rebellious slaves. revolt would endanger the slaves’ communities and families. ——————————————————————————–Question 24 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)The Spanish Franciscan missionaries… tried to impose cultural assimilation and forced labor along with religious conversion of indigenous peoples. became large landowners who collected tribute from the Indians. outlawed slavery in the Spanish colonies. adapted to native culture almost completely. ——————————————————————————–Question 25 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)The movement toward secession in the winter of 1860-1861 was most rapid in… the Upper South. South Carolina. Virginia. Georgia. ——————————————————————————–Question 26 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)Most colonists’ reaction to the Navigation Acts was to… comply with its laws out of fear of reprisals. welcome these measures as a way of strengthening the bonds of empire, which would protect them from the French and Spanish. bribe customs officials to ignore the regulations. resent and resist the trade restrictions. ——————————————————————————–Question 27 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)The Fifteenth Amendment… prohibited state governments from using property requirements to disqualify blacks from voting. gave the full vote to all adult African Americans. prohibited state governments from using literacy tests and poll taxes to prevent blacks from voting. forbade states from denying any citizen the right to vote on the grounds of race, color, or previous condition as a slave. ——————————————————————————–Question 28 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)Before becoming president, Thomas Jefferson viewed the westward migration of Americans with… apprehension because he believed the country was growing too large to be governed as a single republic. disapproval because he sympathized with the plight of the Indians who would be displaced by white settlement of the West. disdain because, as a cultured aristocrat, he considered the settlers to be uncouth rabble who would only cause trouble with the Indians and destroy the West’s natural environment. unqualified approval because he celebrated the pioneer farmer and hoped to see the West developed by independent yeomen. ——————————————————————————–Question 29 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)According to the Constitution, which branch of government is responsible for readmitting states that have seceded from the Union? the Constitution does not address this question. the executive branch. the judicial branch. the legislative branch. ——————————————————————————–Question 30 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)On the eve of European colonization of the Americas, most Western Europeans lived in… small, relatively isolated, rural communities. booming new cities and towns. the older cathedral cities. the castles that dotted the countryside. ——————————————————————————–Question 31 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)Around 1820-1840, the economic conditions for casual day laborers in American cities… improved because they gained greater geographical mobility and were in high demand on new construction projects everywhere. held steady, neither improving nor worsening. bore the brunt of unemployment during business depressions. improved slightly because, even though their wages were declining relative to living costs, they benefited from a heightened sense of charity among the middle class. ——————————————————————————–Question 32 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)A famous Native American who wanted to unite the tribes east of the Mississippi into a confederation during the late 1700s, and was killed in the War of 1812, was: Sitting Bull Tecumseh Geronimo ——————————————————————————–Question 33 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)Martin Van Buren’s most significant contribution to American political history in the 1820s was his… pioneering work in making party discipline an effective tool for governing in a democracy. behind-the-scenes efforts to settle the confused election of 1824 by putting John Quincy Adams in the White House and making Henry Clay secretary of state. development of the techniques of mass electioneering that brought about Andrew Jackson’s election in 1828. 1827 book Democracy in America, which showed how democracy could work in American society. ——————————————————————————–Question 34 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)During their first couple of years in the Jamestown colony, the English migrants… doubled the size of their population. produced an agricultural surplus–enough to trade with the Native Americans. lived remarkably disease-free. suffered from famine and diseases that killed more than half the population. ——————————————————————————–Question 35 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)The three-day Battle of Gettysburg resulted in… a decline in northern popular support for the war. Democratic victories in state and local elections in Ohio, New York, and Pennsylvania. Lee’s loss of over half his Army of Northern Virginia. the Confederate elections of 1863 to turn sharply against supporters of Jefferson Davis. ——————————————————————————–Question 36 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)One social change resulting from the Industrial Revolution in early nineteenth century America was that members of the upper class… came to hold the same cultural and religious values as wage earners in contrast to the elitism that in the eighteenth century had kept the gentry and the “common people” apart. openly distanced themselves by values and lifestyle from wage earners in contrast to the shared cultural and religious values that had united the gentry and ordinary folk in the eighteenth century. became more hypocritical, pretending to share cultural and religious values with wage earners, but actually behaving very differently. tended to claim that they had risen “from rags to riches” and to flaunt their crude taste and rough manners in contrast to “gentlemanly” values of the eighteenth-century elites. ——————————————————————————–Question 37 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)Which of the following does not help to explain the diminishing effectiveness of Reconstruction in the South? Northerners tired of the expense and violence that supporting Reconstruction engendered. Racism among moderate Republicans led them to ascribe Republican defeats in the South to the incompetence of black politicians. A severe depression in 1873 distracted Northerners from the social and racial issues of Reconstruction. The expanded presence of federal troops and officials from 1875 to 1877 brought about an escalation in southern terrorist retaliation. ——————————————————————————–Question 38 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)The Stamp Act Congress held in New York in 1765… was a failure because the nine colonies represented could not agree on a unified policy. protested loss of American rights and liberties and declared that only elected representatives could impose taxes on colonists. formulated a set of resolves that threatened rebellion against Britain. accepted the constitutionality of the Sugar Act but not the Stamp Act. ——————————————————————————–Question 39 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)All of the following are rights guaranteed by the first ten amendments to the Constitution except… the right to a jury trial. the right to vote. the right to bear arms. freedom of speech. ——————————————————————————–Question 40 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)The Mayflower Compact… was the first “constitution” adopted in North America. was the Pilgrims’ declaration of independence from England. proclaimed the Pilgrims’ new religious denomination, known as the Separatist Church. pledged the settlers of the Plymouth Colony to create a democratic form of government. ——————————————————————————–Question 41 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)Which of the following statements most accurately characterizes the relationship between church and state in post-revolutionary America? Most citizens accepted the principle of separation of church and state. The Baptist Church led the campaign for state protection and funding of all Christian denominations. Most religious denominations served their links to the states. By 1787, the Anglican Church of Virginia was the only example of an established church in any state. ——————————————————————————–Question 42 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)Which of the following statements most accurately characterizes the American party system by the early 1840s? As the 1840 election demonstrated, the Whigs held the edge in party discipline and mass loyalty. The two parties offered virtually the same social and economic platform but employed differing campaign styles to attract voters. the practice of Americans voting for a particular party along ethnic and religious lines began to emerge. The Democrats had a major advantage in their wealth and the cohesiveness of their leadership and support. ——————————————————————————–Question 43 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)The Treaty of Guadalupe Hidalgo… was rejected by the US Senate. prohibited slavery in all territories ceded by Mexico, including Texas. ceded Alta, California; New Mexico; and Texas north of the Nueces River to the United States, in addition to requiring Mexico to pay reparations of more than $50 million. purchased more than one-third of Mexico’s territory for $15 million. ——————————————————————————–Question 44 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)In the aftermath of the nullification crisis, President Jackson responded to southern concerns about the tariff by… insisting that high protective tariffs were in the national interest. attempting unsuccessfully to have Congress repeal the Tariff of 1832. persuading Congress to pass new legislation enacting a compromise tariff to gradually reduce duties. ignoring the issue. ——————————————————————————–Question 45 (Multiple Choice Worth 2 points)In early nineteenth-century America… the rise in political status of ordinary white men was accompanied by a decline in the political rights of women and free blacks. most newly organized free states granted the right to vote to adult black men who owned specified amounts of freehold property. Pennsylvania and New York allowed all free adult black males to vote. women were granted the right to vote only in New Jersey in 1807.

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Analytics

Karen, age 58, recently visited her attorney to discuss the appropriate estate planning documents

1. Which of the following types of Special Needs Trust in Ohio do not require a“payback” to the State of Ohio at the death of the Special Needs Trust Beneficiary?

a) Supplemental Services Trust.

b) Pooled Trust.

c) Discretionary Special Needs Trust.

d) Special Needs Trust known as a (d)(4)(a) Trust?

Use the following scenario to answer questions 2 through 5.Karen, age 58, recently visited her attorney to discuss the appropriate estate planning documents she needed to effectuate her estate planning goals. Given the followinggoals, which document is appropriate to effectuate the goal? Each document may beused more than once.a) Do Not Resuscitate order.b) Last Will and Testament.c) Living Will.d) Power of Appointment.e) Power of Attorney for Health Care.f) Power of Attorney.g) Side Instructional Letter.Answer Question Goal2. To clarify Karen’s burial wishes.3. To give Karen’s husband, Teddy, the ability to gift Karen’sassets to himself after her death.4. To deny being placed on an artificial breathing machine ifKaren is terminally ill.5. To direct and provide for the future care of her minor child,Josh, in the event of her death.6. Donald has created a trust for the benefit of his three nephews, Huey, Dewey, andLouie, who are all minors. Donald plans on making annual contributions to the trust. Donald would like at least some of his annual contributions to the trust to qualify forthe annual exclusion. What would be the best way to accomplish this goal?A. Donald should make sure that he does not contribute more than $14,000 foreach nephew, or $42,000 in total, each year.B. Donald should give his nephews an unlimited ability to remove funds from thetrust.C. Donald should give his nephews the right to remove some or all of the annualcontribution from the trust for a limited period of time.D. Donald’s annual contributions to the trust will not qualify for the annualexclusion under any circumstances.7. This year, Dottie donated $10,000 in cash to her church and she also donated medicalsupplies with a fair market value and adjusted basis of $20,000 to the Red Cross. Dottie’sAGI for this year is $50,000. What is Dottie’s charitable income tax contributiondeduction for the year?(a) $10,000.(b) $20,000.(c) $25,000.(d) $30,000.8. Each of the following is an allowable credit against the federal estate tax except:A. Unified credit.B. Marital deduction.C. Foreign death tax credit.D. Prior taxes paid credit.E. All are credits against the federal estate tax.9. Which of the following statements is correct regarding Federal bankruptcy andinherited IRA’s?A. Inherited IRA’s are not retirement accounts.B. Inherited IRA assets are excludible under ERISA from the bankruptcy estate.C. Inherited IRA assets up to $1Million (as indexed) are exempt in bankruptcy.D. Inherited IRA assets are exempt in bankruptcy if needed for support.10. Assume that Decedent’s mother predeceases her and in addition to the brokerageaccount valued at $200,000 owned as a tenancy-in-common with her daughter, and the $1million life insurance policy owned on her daughter which has a replacement value of $300,000, mother has a life estate in a piece of real estate which is valued at $700,000.What is the value of mother’s gross estate?A. $ 100,000B. $ 200,000C. $ 400,000D. $1,900,00011. Under the three (3) year date of death rule, which of the following transfers ofproperty made within three (3) years of the decedent’s death will be included in thedecedent’s gross estate.I. All gifts made within three (3) years of death.II. All annual exclusion gifts made within three (3) years of death.III. All sales of real estate made within three (3) years of death.A. I onlyB. I and IIC. I and IIID. I, II, and IIIE. None of the transfers are subject to inclusion.12. Which statement best describes what a gift for gift tax purposes?A. Any transfer of property made from a donor to a donee.B. Any sale of property for fair market value.C. A gratuitous transfer of property for less than full and adequate consideration.D. An alimony payment.Questions 13 – 1513. John dies with an estate valued at $3 million which is comprised of the followingassets: $1 million home; $1 million IRA; and $1 million of cash. John’s wife is theowner and the beneficiary of a $1 million insurance policy on John’s life. The ASPCA isthe beneficiary of John’s IRA. John’s will provides that upon his death, ½ of his assetswill pass to his wife, with the remaining assets passing to the ASPCA. John dies in 2006.What is the value of the marital deduction allowed to John’s estate?A. ZeroB. $1,000,000C. $1,500,000D. $2,000,00014. What is the value of John’s charitable deduction?A. ZeroB. $1,000,000C. $1,500,000D. $2,000,00015. What credits are available to reduce John’s estate tax liability?I. Marital deduction. II. Charitable deduction.III. Administration expenses. A. I and II B. III only C. I, II and III D. None of the above.16. With respect to the gift tax annual exclusion in 2016, which statement is true?A. A donee may receive a total of $14,000 on an annual basis from all donors.B. Use of the annual exclusion within 3 years of the donor’s death will cause the gift tobe included in the donor’s gross estate.C. The annual exclusion is not in addition to the lifetime gift tax unifed creditapplicable exclusion amount.D. Allows a person to transfer this amount gift tax free to any number of beneficiarieson an annual basis.17. Which of the following statements is true concerning “split gifts”?A. Allows the utilization of twice the annual exclusion only by spouses if an election ismade.B. Allows the utilization of twice the annual exclusion by spouses requiring noelection.C. Allows the utilization of twice the annual exclusion by unrelated parties if anelection is made.D. Allows the utilization of twice the annual exclusion by related parties as long as anelection is made.18. Which of the following is true with respect to the valuation of a gift?I. No valuation discounts are allowed.II. An alternate valuation date may be used.III. The value is based is the FMV of the asset on the date the donor decides tomake the gift. A. I and III B. II and III C. III only D. All of the above. E. None of the above.19. Testator has had a change of heart and would like to change his will so that all of hisassets will pass to his wife. What is the best method by which the Testator can changehis will?A. Tell his wife.B. Cross out the section he wants changed within the will and insert the correction.C. Codicil to the will.D. Move to another state.20. Which of the following are characteristics of a qualified disclaimer?1)It may not direct the bequest to another person selected by the disclaimant. It must bereceived by the executor of the estate within 9 months of the death of the decedent.2)It must be written and irrevocable.3)The disclaimant may disclaim a part of an asset. (a) 1 and 2.(b) 1, 2 and 3.(c) 1, 3 and 4.(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4.21. Which of the following statements concerning the ownership of real property asjoint tenants with right of survivorship is (are) correct?I. If the joint tenants are mother and son and the son contributed all thefunds to purchase the property, one-half of the property’s value will beexcluded from the mother’s estate if she dies first.II. If the joint tenants are married to each other and the wife contributed allthe funds to purchase the property, the entire value of the property willbe in the wife’s estate if she dies first.(A) I only(B) II only(C) Both I and II(D) Neither I nor II22. Kevin transferred $4,000,000 to a GRAT naming his four children as theremainder beneficiaries. Kevin retained an annuity from the GRAT valued at $1,500,000.If this is his only transfer during the year, what is Kevin’s total taxable gifts for the year?(a)$1,456,000.(b)$1,500,000.(c)$2,456,000.(d)$2,500,000.23. Which of the following transfers at death will be administered through probatecourt?(A) life insurance proceeds(B) transfers of property from a living trust(C) property owned “fee simple” by the decedent(D) property owned joint tenancy with right of survivorship24. Client creates an inter vivos revocable trust of which the client is the Grantor,Trustee and the lifetime beneficiary. Which of the following estate planning objectivesof the client can be satisfied?I. Avoid probate.II. Remove assets from the estate.III. Provide a unified method of managing and distributing assets duringlifetime and after death.IV. Protect assets from the Grantor’s creditors.A. I and IVB. II and IVC. II and IIID. I and IIIE. None of the above.25. Kent, age 38, recently came to you for estate planning advice. He has never executedany estate planning documents. During the client interview, you learned that Kent hasnever been married and has a six-year-old daughter, Kerstin, with his previous girlfriend,Karen. Karen is Kerstin’s custodial parent and Kent sees Kerstin every other weekend.While Kent and Karen are cordial, the relationship was recently strained when Karenbegan dating Kent’s business partner, Bobby. Kent is in good health and participatesregularly in automobile racing competitions. While Kent often wins in competitions, hehas wrecked his car several times and has been seriously injured. Because Kent has hadso many wrecks, he invested a majority of his $500,000 net worth in a closely heldcompany to develop a revolutionary steel product that will not bend, crumble or catchfire. Kent and his business partner, Bobby, are sure that all race car companies will buythe steel product because their initial tests established that nine out of ten times a carmade with the product that was in a wreck did not even get a dent. Although they plan totake their product to market in a few months, Kent and his partner have had severaldisagreements. Which of the following statements is true?(a) If Kent died today, there would not be any liquidity issues because Kent’sshare of the closely held company could easily be sold for fair market value.(b)Since the value of Kent’s net worth is below $5,000,000, there is no need forestate planning.(c)Amounts given to Karen for Kerstin’s support are deductible on Kent’s incomeor gift tax return.(d)If Kent were to die today, his assets would transfer via state intestacy laws withKerstin being the most likely heir.26. A client dies with a will instructing that all assets pass to the surviving spouse.Which of the following assets will pass to the surviving spouse under the provisions ofthe will?A. Decedent’s $500,000 IRA with the wife named as the beneficiary.B. Decedent’s $1 million life insurance policy with the decedent’s “Estate”named as the beneficiary.C. The $750,000 home decedent owned as a tenancy-by-the-entirety with hiswife.D. None of these assets will pass under the provisions of the will.E. All of these assets will pass under the provisions of the will.27. Nate owns the following property:• A personal residence titled fee simple valued at $500,000.• A $500,000 life insurance policy on his own life. The only named beneficiary isNate’s brother Jaime, who died 6 months ago leaving two children, Michael andKristi.• A car valued at $15,000 titled JTRWROS with Nate’s mother.• An IRA valued at $400,000 with Nate’s mother as the named beneficiary.What is the value of Nate’s probate estate?A. $500,000.B. $1,000,000.C. $1,400,000.D. $1,415,000.28. Which of the following is/are always true about wills?I. A will transfers all of the decedent’s assets.II. A will only takes effect when the decedent dies.III. A will names an Administrator for the estate.A. I and II onlyB. II and III onlyC. II onlyD. I, II and III29. David and Rebecca have been talking about getting married. In June 2014, Davidpops the question and gives Rebecca a $30,000 engagement ring. They marry in Octoberof 2015 at which time David transfers $100,000 into Rebecca’s checking account. Whatis the value of David’s marital deduction for gift tax purposes in year 2015? A. $ 14,000 B. $ 86,000C. $ 100,000D. $ 116,00030. Bill and Joanne Ames have a child, John, who has Autism. John has never workedand his parents have asked your assistance in applying for social security benefits nowthat John has turned 18 years old. For income purposes you tell them to apply for whichof the following programs?A. MedicaidB. MedicareC. Supplemental Security Income (SSI)- Title XVID. Social Security Retirement Benefits (SSA)- Title II, 42 U.S.C. Sec 402 to 43131. Joe and Sally King, have an Adjusted Gross Estate of $10,000,000. They have adisabled child, Susan, and two other children, Amy and Fred, who have no SpecialNeeds. Susan is currently receiving Medicaid benefits. They are creating an IrrevocableLife Insurance Trust for the benefit of their children. Their Financial Planner told themthat if they owned life insurance in their own names, the face value would be subject toFederal Estate Tax at their deaths. Their ILIT trustee will purchase a “Survivor Life”policy that will be payable to a Special Needs Trust for Susan at their deaths, and also togeneral needs trusts for their two other children. Which of the following statementsconcerning this strategy is correct?A. If Susan’s share of the life insurance proceeds are payable to a special needstrust for her benefit, she will still qualify for Medicaid because the specialneeds trust is not a countable resource.B. If Susan’s share of the life insurance proceeds are payable to a special needstrust for her benefit, she will not qualify for Medicaid because the specialneeds trust is a countable resource.C. If Fred and Amy are the only beneficiaries, Susan will still be disqualifiedfrom Medicaid because the government will know that the Kings are trying to“get around” the system.D. None of the above statements are correct.32. Ken and Jennifer Mac have donated appreciated real estate valued at $1,000,000to a charitable remainder trust. Which of the following tax benefits are available tothem as a result of their gift?A. Ken and Jennifer receive an income tax deduction against current incomeequal to the value of the gift minus the present value of their income interest.B. Ken and Jennifer pay no capital gains tax when the real estate is sold by thetrustee of the charitable remainder trust.C. Ken and Jennifer pay no estate tax on the remainder interest which passesto charity at their deaths.D. All of the above are tax benefits available.33. Which of the following is not a valid business purpose to support the formation of aFamily Limited partnership?A. To protect assets from creditors.B. To manage family wealth and share family assets with family membersC. To organize the family’s main hobby so all members can participate fairlyD. To implement estate planning goals and objectives.34. Bob and Sally Jones form a Family Limited Partnership and transfer their farm to thepartnership in exchange for a 1 percent general partner interest and 99 percent limitedpartner interests. Bob and Sally retain the one percent general partner interest and gift thelimited partner interests to their three children. Which of the following is a true statementabout the Family Limited Partnership?A. Bob and Sally cannot decide to sell the farm without the consent of at least amajority of the limited partners.B. If the farm business distributes $100,000 to the partners proportionately, Boband Sally will only receive $1,000 and their children will receive $99,000.C. If the farm had a fair market value of $1,000,000 at the time Bob and Sallymade their gifts to their children a judgment creditor could probably seize thefarm before the gifts are madeD. Bob and Sally cannot gift their general partner interest to their children.35. A life insurance trust is often named the beneficiary of a life insurance policy itholds for which of the following reasons?a. It can provide greater flexibility than is available under insurancesettlement optionsb. It can eliminate a second estate tax upon the death of the beneficiaries.c. It can incorporate special limitations and restrictions on the funds designedto be paid to specific beneficiaries.d. All of the above36. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a Special Needs Trust?A. The trust is still a “countable resource” for Medicaid eligibility.B. The trust is not a “countable resource” for Medicaid eligibility.C. At the death of the special needs beneficiary, the State is entitled toreimbursement, dollar-for-dollar of any Medicaid benefits paid on behalf of thetrust beneficiary during his or her life.D. If the trust is an Ohio Supplemental Needs Trust, at the death of thespecial needs beneficiary, the State is entitled to reimbursement of 50% of theremainder of the trust assets. 37. Which of the following statements is false regarding a bargain sale?A. The difference between the fair market value of the asset and the considerationreceived in exchangefor the asset is considered a gift.B. The gift portion of a bargain sale will qualify for the annual exclusion.C. A bargain sale is generally inappropriate if the buyer of the property is a familymember.D. If the property is sold for more than the seller’s basis in the property, a taxablegain will result.38. Ben is interested in using a Qualified Personal Residence Trust (QPRT) as part of hisestate plan. Which of the following are false regarding QPRTs?A. At the end of the trust term, the house will revert back to the grantor.B. With a QPRT, the grantor must survive the trust term to realize any estate taxsavings.C. A QPRT can be used with either primary residences or vacation homes.D. The grantor will have a taxable gift upon the creation of the QPRT.39. Which of the following statements is true?(a) Angela transferred her home to a QPRT in 2008. She retained the right to live in thehome for 13 years, and at the end of the term, the home transfers to Angela’s threechildren. Angela dies in 2011, when the home has a fair market value of $250,000. Thevalue of the home is excluded from Angela’s gross estate because the children are theremainder beneficiaries of the QPRT.(b) Missy transfers rental property to a Family Limited Partnership (FLP) in return for a99% limited partnership interest and a 1% general partnership interest. Missyimmediately begins a gifting program by gifting a portion of the limited partnershipinterests to her children and grandchildren. Six years after the initial formation of theFLP, Missy continues to own the 1% general partnership interest and 45% of thelimited partnership interests in the FLP. Because Missy does not own a majority(greater than 50%) of the interest in the FLP, Missy cannot control the operations ofthe FLP.(c) Rose has been diagnosed with an illness that is expected to substantially reduce herlife expectancy. Before she dies, Rose would like to transfer her extremely valuableart collection to her wealthy daughter. The art collection does not generate anyincome, as it is just displayed in Rose’s home, but Rose really needs money for herliving expenses for the remainder of her life. A GRAT would be the most appropriatetransfer device to fulfill Rose’s desires.(d) Earl has four children – Kenny, Tim, Aaron, and Cathy. Earl’s will directs all of hisproperty to be divided equally among his four children, and if any child predeceasesEarl, that child’s heirs will inherit Earl’s property per capita. Earl has an estate worthapproximately $10 million and is 79 years old. A private annuity strategy may be agood option for him to consider to reduce his exposure to Federal Estate Tax.40. During the year, Edward created a trust for the benefit of his five children. The termsof the trust declare that his children can only access the trust’s assets after the trust hasbeen in existence for 20 years and the trust does not include a Crummey provision. IfEdward transfers $100,000 to the trust during the year, what is his total taxable gifts forthe year? ( Assume an annual exclusion of $13,000)A. $0.B. $35,000.C. $60,000.41. Which of the following qualifies for the unlimited marital deduction?A. Outright bequest to resident noncitizen spouse.B. Property passing to noncitizen spouse in QTIP.C. Outright bequest to resident spouse.D. Income beneficiary of a CRUT who is a nonresident alien spouse.42. Which of the following statements concerning joint tenancy with right ofsurvivorship is correct?(A) This form of ownership is available only to two related parties.(B) Ownership interests must be equal.(C) During his or her lifetime, each joint tenant may sell his or her interest only toanother joint tenant.(D) A joint tenant may leave his or her interest by will to someone other thananother joint tenant.43. In which of the following situations has a transfer been completed for gift taxpurposes?(A) Bill mails his nephew a check for $100 as a birthday gift.(B) Jane’s grandmother, dying of cancer, gives Jane a valuable family heirloomand indicates that she wants Jane to have it when she dies from the illness.(C) Sally calls her stockbroker and tells the broker to purchase 100 shares ofEnron and title them jointly to her and her husband with rights ofsurvivorship. (D) John and his son establish a joint bank account and John deposits funds intothe account.44. Fred, the founder and CEO of WonderCo, recently passed away. At his death, Fredowned 80% of the stock of WonderCo; and the WonderCo stock was his only asset.WonderCo is a publicly traded company. Which of the following discounts would beapplicable to Fred’s WonderCo stock?A. Key Person Discount.B. Minority Discount.C. Both a and b.D. Neither a nor b.45.Which of the following types of property is subject to probate?(A) death benefits from a retirement plan passing to a named beneficiary(B) testamentary trust property(C) life insurance proceeds paid to a named beneficiary(D) property held jointly with right of survivorship passing to the surviving jointtenant46.Which of the following statements concerning the use of Crummey powers withan irrevocable life insurance trust is correct?(A) Crummey powers are used to make an irrevocable life insurance trust a futureinterestgift.(B) The right to exercise the Crummey powers must exist for a reasonable periodof time each year.(C) If there are several beneficiaries, Crummey powers should be given to onlyone beneficiary.(D) A danger is that the beneficiary can request an amount greater than thegrantor’s annual addition to the corpus and thus the insurance policy can bestripped by the beneficiary.47.Which of the following statements concerning the federal estate tax is correct?(A) Property included in the gross estate for federal estate tax purposes must bevalued at its fair market value on the date of death.(B) Beneficiaries of an estate cannot be charged with estate tax liability.(C) The estate subject to tax includes not only property actually owned by theestate owner at the time of death but also property deemed to have been ownedat the date of death.(D) U.S. citizens are subject to federal estate tax only on property they own at thetime of death that is located in the U.S.48. James and Donna Smith own an insurance brokerage business that theyincorporated fifteen years ago with an initial investment of $500.00. Their commonstock is now worth $1,000,000, and they are considering selling the business. Jamesand Donna have contacted you to discuss their options. They would like to sell thebusiness and diversify their investment into various stocks, bonds and mutual funds.However, they are nervous about the large capital gains tax they would have to pay.In order to avoid paying capital gains tax on the sale of their stock, which of thefollowing transactions would you recommend?A. Gift the stock to a Special Needs Trust and receive income for life.B. Gift the stock to a Charitable Lead Trust and reserve a life payout forthemselves.C. Gift the stock to a Charitable Remainder Trust and reserve a life payoutfor themselves.D. Gift the stock to an Irrevocable Life Insurance Trust and use the proceedsfrom sake to purchase life insurance on their lives.49. Which of the following statements concerning the alternate valuation dateallowed for federal estate tax purposes is correct?(A) The alternate valuation date is 12 months after the decedent’s death.(B) The alternate valuation date can be used even if property is distributed or soldbefore the alternate valuation date.(C) The alternate valuation date can be used in valuing an interest, such as anannuity, whose value is affected by the mere passage of time.(D) If the alternate valuation date is selected, that date applies to all assets in theestate, subject to a few exceptions.50. In which of the following situations would the entire property transferred atdeath receive a fully stepped-up basis?(A) income that is included in the decedent’s gross estate as income in respect of adecedent(B) appreciated property acquired by the decedent by gift within one year beforedeath if, upon death, the property passes directly or indirectly back to theoriginal donor or the original donor’s spouse(C) property held in joint tenancies between spouses that is received by thesurviving spouse upon the death of the first spouse(D) property that passes to another because the decedent owned a fee simpleinterest in the property.

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Karen, age 58, recently visited her attorney to discuss the appropriate estate planning documents

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